1. The 44 Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. In 1975, Parliament passed the Thirty-ninth amendment to the Constitution which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead, a body constituted by Parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes.

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in 4 the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by the majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. 3 and 4 only.

Explanation: A. Jawaharlal Nehru

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 and 2 only.

Explanation: B. Fifth Schedule.

Explanation: B. The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall Address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons. In case of absence of rules in particular matter, the speaker of state legislative assembly/council decides rules.

Explanation: B. Article 21.

Explanation: C. Sarkaria commission gave its recommendations for the selection of Governors.

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act 2016, establishes the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India, and a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of each state.these funds are to be managed by the National and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authorities, also set up under the Act. However, there is no mention in the Act of mandatory people's participation in carrying out programmes under the Act.

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. 1 and 2.

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The independent regulator TRAI is the first independent regulator in India.

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation: B. Absence of restraint.

Explanation: C. Kot Diji (now in Pakistan) was an early Harappan site. Chanhudaro (Pakistan) and Desalpur (Gujarat) are mature Harappan sites.

Explanation: A. Kanaganahalli in Karnataka is the site with an inscription in Brahmi script reading Ranyo Ashoka and a sculpture of King Ashoka.

1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?

Explanation: D. Mahayana Buddhism promoted devotional support, Deification of Buddha, icon worship and rituals and treading path of Bodhisattvas.

Explanation: A. Vishti was considered as a source of income for the state, a sort of tax by the people.

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. In Mughal India, Jagirdars under Mansabdari system were assigned land in lieu of assigned duties towards the empire such as police, judicial, military; Zamindars too apart from revenue collecting duties had to render military duties and perform Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill the ranks of royal army at times of need and offer gifts at the royal court. Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of empire as loyalties towards Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals.

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The lqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. In the Delhi Sultanate, the task of collecting revenue directly from peasant and measurement of land rested on Amils. Iqta system evolved in West Asia significantly in Persia Mir Bhakshi was the head of militiary department in Mughal India whereas in Delhi Sultanate, Ariz under Diwan-i-arz (set up by Balban) was improved by Alauddin Khalji as he introduced Dagh system which was aimed to improve Horse quality as well as eliminate fake numbering.

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Nimbarka was a 13th century philosphical Saint whereas Akbar's time period was 1556- 1605; Saint Kabir was 15th century poet whereas Sirhindi was in 17th century.

Explanation: C. Tansen was the title given by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa).

Explanation: C. During Akbar's reign many manuscripts were illustrated, the prominent being Razmnamah, the Persian translation of Mahabharata. It was during Jahangir's reign that manuscripts became less important and individual portraits became more prominent.

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the 2/60 Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: A. The Charter Act of 1813 ended trade monopoly of East India company in India except for trade in tea and trade in China. Further it also asserted sovereignty of British Crown over the Indian territories held by company. However the Company was to retain the possession of territories and revenues for 20 years more without prejudice to British Crown.

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in opposition to the partition of Bengal in 1905. It emphasised on self reliance thus contributing to revival of indigenous artisans craft and industries. In August 1906 the National Council of Education was established to provide an impetus to program of national education as a part of Swadeshi movement.

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League : Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha :Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement : Naicker E.V. Ramaswami

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Mahatma Gandhi set up All India Anti-Untouchability league in 1932 which later transformed into Harijan Sevak Sangh. All India Kisan Sabha was founded by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati in 1936 to spearhead peasent movements in colonial India. E V Ramaswamy Naicker started Self respect movement against untouchability in 1925.

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'
2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. In South Africa, Gandhi in opposition to compulsory registration of Indian population under Asiatic Law Amendment Act of the Transvaal government organised non-violent protest which led to passing of Indian Relief Act 1914- which eliminated extra tax on Indian citizens who had not renewed their indentures and recognised validity of Indian marriages. 7/60 In the Young India article dated 27 Nov, 1920 -

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru : President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy : Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi : General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent member of Liberal Party of India and the President of All India Liberal Federation. KC Neogy was a memeber of Constituent Assembly and also the Chairman of First Finance Commision. P.C Joshi was the General Secretary of Communist Party of India.

Explanation: A. "New World" means the Americas which were discovered by European Powers such as Spain, Portuguese and French; Tobacco, Cocoa and Rubber were native crops of Americas and were introduced in the Old World (Asia).

Explanation: B. In the Vittala Temple of Hampi, pavilions or mandapas that were meant to celebrate the marriages of dieties were known as Kalyan Mandapa.

Explanation: B. The Land reform constitutes the most important measures to improve the economic condition of agricultural tenants.The Land reforms program in post-Independence India has evolved through different phases and these includes Abolition of Intermediaries, Tenancy reforms, consolidation of holdings and determination of holdings per family, imposition of ceilings with fewer exemptions, and to distribute surplus land among landless peoples.

Explanation: B. These poverty lines would vary from State to State because of inter-state price differentials.

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Coal sector was nationalised in two phases under Indira Gandhi Government in 1972. The coal Blocks are allocated through Auctions not on lottery basis. The coal sector is the monopolistic sector in India. India holds 5th biggest coal reserves in the world but due to incapacity of coal production by monopolistic firms, it imports coals to meet the shortages of domestic supply. But, still the country is not self-sufficient of coal production.

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. 3 only.

Explanation: B. Under the Lead bank Scheme, the service area approach was introduced in 1989 for planned and orderly development of rural and semi-urban areas. Each bank branch in rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area if 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area.

1. Most of India's external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India's external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. US dollar denominated debt is the largest component of India's External Debt, followed by Indian rupee,SDR,Yen and Euro. Commercial Borrowings continue to be the largest componenet of India's external Debt followed by NRI deposit and short term credit.

Explanation: C. The deposit itself is a liability owed by the bank to the depositor. Bank deposits refer to this liability rather than to the actual funds that have been deposit. Hence option B is the correct answer.

1. The foreign currency earnings of India
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. A currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country's currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency. Foreign currency earnings and Remittances contribute to the strengthening of the rupee. Increasing government Expenditure will have no effect on the the value of currency.

Explanation: D. P-Notes or Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered.

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. The stated objective of the Second five year plan was rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries - aimed at establishing the Socialistic Pattern of Society. Fourth five year plan emphasised on reduction of concentration of incomes, wealth and economic power to achieve social equality and justice. Fifth five year plan aims at removal of poverty and achievement of self-reliance. The Eighth Plan focussed on Financial sector reforms.

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The AIIB is a multilateral development bank have now grown to 97 approved members worldwide. Australia, NZ, Qatar, Canada, Cyprus etc are non regional members. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Source AIIB. India is the second largest shareholder of the AIIB. (business standard) India is the largest borrower from Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank.

Explanation: D. To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.

Explanation: A. Bank Board Bureau is responsible for selection and appointment of Board of Directors in Public Sector Banks and Financial Institutions.

Explanation: C. The economic cost of foodgrains consists of three components, namely the MSP including central bonus, if applicable, as the price paid to farmers, procurement incidentals, and the cost of distribution.

Explanation: D. Social capital refers to connections among individuals

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. PPPs measure the total amount of goods and services that a single unit of a country's currency can buy in another country. The PPP between countries A and B measures the amount of country A's currency required to purchase a basket of goods and services in country A as compared to the amount of country B's currency to purchase a similar basket of goods and services in country B.

Explanation: D. Vegetable oils.

Explanation: D. Following an expansionary monetary policy.

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The Storage of Payment System Data directive issued by RBI requires all System Providers to ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system in India only. Also, System Providers shall provide a System Audit Report (SAR) and the audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empaneled auditors

Explanation: B. The money-multiplier is the maximum amount of broad money (M3 Money) that could be created by the commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money or reserve ratios. Or, simply it can be stated that the maximum amount of money that the banking system generates with each rupees of reserves. So, more the people will be linked with the banking system or have the habit of banking more will be the money in use in the form of loans, credits etc. that results an increase in economic activity. This will dirctly help in increase money multiplier in an economy. The money multiplier goes up because of the reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR).

Explanation: D. The Valley of Flowers national park located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of flora. Situated approximately 3255m above sea level, this splendid park is spread across 87.5 sq km of land. The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m. The rich diversity of species reflects the valley's location within a transition zone between the Zanskar and Great Himalayas ranges to the north and south, respectively, and between the Eastern Himalaya and Western Himalaya flora.

Explanation: A. 21st June is the longest day of the year as countries lying to the north of the equator, including India, witness 'Summer Solstice'. The 'summer solstice' occurs exactly when the earth's axial tilt is most inclined towards the sun at its maximum of 23 degrees 26'.During 'summer solstice', the Northern Hemisphere witnesses its longest day of the year while the Southern Hemisphere sees its shortest day.

1. Pandharpur Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli Cauvery
3. Hampi Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Pandharpur is a holy place of Shri.Vitthal and Shri.Rukmini. It is also known as the Southern Kashi of India and Kuldaivat of Maharashtra State. The Chandrabhaga (Bhima) river flows through the City.Tiruchirappalli, situated on the banks of the river Cauvery is the fourth largest city in Tamil Nadu. It was a citadel of the early Cholas which later fell to the Pallavas. Hampi is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in India located near Hospet town in the Karnataka state, on south bank of Tungabhadra river.

Explanation: D. Geo-engineering approach to reversing global warming

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

Explanation: C. 3, 2, 4 & 1

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. 1, 2 and 3.

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

Explanation: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

1. Adriatic Sea Albania
2. Black Sea Croatia
3. Caspian Sea Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea Morocco

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. 1, 3 and 4. The Adriatic Sea is a part of the Mediterranean Sea positioned between the eastern coastline of Italy, and countries of the Balkan Peninsula, from Slovenia, South through Croatia, Montenegro, and to Albania. The Black Sea is an inland sea located between far-southeastern Europe and the far-western edges of the continent of Asia and the country of Turkey. It's bordered by Turkey, and by Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia and Georgia. Caspian Sea is an enclosed body of water between Asia and Europe. It is bordered by Iran, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, Russia. Morocco

1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri Chenab
3. Milam Mandakini
4. Siachen Nubra

Which of the pairs correctly matched?

Explanation: A. An important glacier of Yamuna river basin is Bandarpunch Glacier in the Garhwal division of the Himalayas. It is 12 km long situated on the Northern slopes of Bandarpunch West, Khatling peak and Bandarpunch peak the glacier is formed by three cirque glaciers and then join the river of Yamuna. Bara Shigri is the largest glacier located in Lahaul Spiti region in Chandra Valley, Himachal Pradesh. It is a 30-km long glacier, the second longest glacier in the Himalayas after Gangotri. It flows northwards and feeds the Chenab river. Milam Glacier in Munsiyari, Pithoragarh district, Uttarakhand is the source of Gori Ganga River and not of Mandakini River. Gori Ganga is also an important tributary of Kali River. At an altitude of roughly 5,400 meters (17,700 feet), the Siachen Glacier in Kashmir is a forbidding place. At much lower altitudes, the glacier

Explanation: D. Aliyar (Tamil Nadu) Isapur (Maharashtra,) and Kangsabati ( West Bengal) are water reservoirs, where water level reached much below the normal capacity.

Explanation: B. Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 and 3 only.

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Asiatic lions that once ranged from Persia (Iran) to Palamau in Eastern India were almost driven to extinction by indiscriminate hunting and habitat loss. A single population of less than 50 lions persisted in the Gir forests of Gujarat by late 1890's. With timely and stringent protection offered by the State Government and the Center Government, Asiatic lions have increased to the current population of over 500 numbers. The double-hump camel is a native of Gobi desert, and is found on a vast expanse of cold-desert areas across Mongolia, China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of Afghanistan.

Explanation: A. The agasthyamalai biosphere is located in the Western Ghats in the south of the country. Consisting mostly of tropical forest, the site is home to 2,254 species of higher plants including about 400 that are endemic. It is also a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants, in particular cardamom, jamune, nutmeg, pepper and plantain. Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and Neyyar, are located in the site, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve.

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes viviparous.

Which of the statements given above arc correct?

Explanation: D. Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles snack on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. Parrotfish are algae eaters. They obtain the algae by ripping small chunks of coral from a reef. The fish's grinding teeth, located in its throat, pulverize the coral. The teeth allow the fish to extract the algae from the center of the polyp inside.Manatees, sometimes called sea cows, are large mammals that live in warm sea waters. They live in shallow coastal areas and feed on sea vegetation. Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles.

1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given correctly matched?

Explanation: C. The Western Ghats region is famous for freshwater biodiversity. Mahseer, belonging to the genus Tor, is considered a prized sports fish of great cultural value.In the Cauvery the Mahseer community comprises two varieties

Explanation: A. Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm and don't degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products. They are considered harmful to marine and aquatic ecosystem.

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. 3 only.

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds environment.

Which of the statements given above is/arc correct?

Explanation: D. Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010, followed by waste water (12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%). Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production and India is globally the biggest source of ammonia emission, nearly double that of NOx emissions. The poultry industry, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Hydrogen-Enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%,not complete emission. It also reduces carbondioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. H-CNG also enables up to 5% savings in fuel efficiency. H- CNG also reduces the engines unburned hydrocarbon emissions and speed up the process of combustion.

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Environment Protection Act 1986, empowers the government of India to lay down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources whatsoever, provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be laid down under this clause from different sources having regard to the quality or composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such sources.

Explanation: C. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

Explanation: C. The E-waste Rules place main responsibility of e-waste management on the producers of the electrical and electronic equipment by introducing the concept of

Explanation: D. In developing Three-Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20), the Niti Aayog has drawn a broader framework for addressing the issue of municipal solid waste (MSW). The solution being suggested by the Action Agenda is twin-fold: waste-to-energy incinerators for bigger municipalities and composting method of waste disposal for small towns and semi-urban areas. While proposing incineration as a solution, the Niti Aayog has also assessed the benefit-cost ratio of thermal pyrolysis and plasma gasification technologies.

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. The Sentinel satellite of the European Space Agency has certain specific spectral characteristics that can be used to measure even the chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location. Estimation of Methane Emissions from Rice Paddies in the Mekong Delta Based on Land Surface Dynamics Characterization with Remote Sensing. The land surface temperature of a specific location can be measured with the help of satellite images/ remote sensing data.

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. LTE improved on the radio technology of 3G's WCDMA and introduced OFDM or Orthogonal Frequency-Division Multiplexing. ITU (The International Telecommunication Union) recognises the lack of clarity in the term 4G and has determined LTE-Advanced and WirelessMAN-Advanced or WiMax 2 as "True" 4G. VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks. Basically VoLTE systems covert voice into data stream, which is then transmitted using the data connection.

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Virtual reality (VR) immerses users in a fully artificial digital environment. Augmented reality (AR) overlays virtual objects on the real-world environment. Mixed reality (MR) not just overlays but anchors virtual objects to the real world.

Explanation: A. Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. 1, 2 and 3.

1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. In recent times, there has been a new surge in wearable technology worn on the ear, referred to as hearables. Wearable technology is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin.

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. RNA interference (RNAi), regulatory system occurring within eukaryotic cells (cells with a clearly defined nucleus) that controls the activity of genes. RNAi functions specifically to silence, or deactivate, genes. RNAi is being explored as a form of treatment for a variety of diseases, including macular degeneration, hepatitis, AIDS, Huntington disease, and cancer. RNAi is used as a natural defense mechanism against molecular parasites such as jumping genes and viral genetic elements.

Explanation: B. Gravitational waves were detected.

1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. Antimicrobial resistance occurs naturally over time, usually through genetic changes. However, the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials is accelerating this process. In many places, antibiotics are overused and misused in people and animals, and often given without professional oversight. Examples of misuse include when they are taken by people with viral infections like colds and flu, and when they are given as growth promoters in animals or used to prevent diseases in healthy animals.

Explanation: A. A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.

Explanation: B. The hepatitis B vaccine is a safe and effective vaccine that is recommended for all infants at birth and for children up to 18 years. The hepatitis B vaccine is also known as the first "anti-cancer" vaccine because it prevents hepatitis B, the leading cause of liver cancer worldwide.

Explanation: C. The Global Competitiveness Report (GCR) is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum.

Explanation: C. AlM's objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels. The Mission has been set up under NITI Aayog.

Explanation: D. Himalayan nettle(Girardinia diversifolia) is found to be a sustainable source of textile fiber. The fabric and the things made from it. For the Himalayan Indian Nettle, Government of india has granted approval for a project titled Development of products from Himalayan Indian nettle to Department of Jute and Fibre Technology, Institute of Jute Technology, University of Kolkata.

Explanation: B. India has been the world's top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade. India emerged the world's largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing Thailand from its leadership position.

Explanation: A. Carbofuran, Phorate and Triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture.

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: C. 1, 2 and 4.

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: C. 2 and 4 only.

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. 2 and 3 only.

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both 1 and 2.

1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. Stale Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 and 3 only.

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months postdelivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. This new bill amends the Maternity Benefit Act of 1961. Under the new provision, women are entitled to visit creches four times a day. Maternity benefit of 26 weeks are provided. Out of 26 weeks, Up to eight weeks can be claimed before delivery. However, one can instead take the entire 26 weeks of leave after the delivery. If the woman has more than two surviving children, the maternity benefit is for 12 weeks only.

Explanation: A. Sub Index of Ease of Doing Buisness Index comprises starting a buisness,Getting a location (labour market regulation, constuction permits, getting electrictiy, registering property), Accessing finance (Getting credit, Protecting Minority investor), Dealing with day to day operation(Paying taxes, enforcing contracts).

Explanation: C. The European Union.

Explanation: B. During the visit of H. E. Vladimir Putin, President of the Russian Federation to India, Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field Identified Jointly by India and Russia was signed on 5th October, 2018 in New Delhi.

Explanation: B. For the first time, scientists have found fossils from an extinct ancient human lineage known as the Denisovans outside of Siberia. Denisovans were an extinct group of hominins that were close relatives of Neanderthals. They are known primarily from a handful of fossil fragments found at Denisova Cave in Siberia, and from genetic clues that linger in the DNA of people across Asia.