Explanation: B. Economic Liberty.

Explanation: A. Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly, had said 'The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long."

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

Explanation: C. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. At present there are no laws for enforcing the the duty to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform or to enforce the fundamental duty to strive towards excellence. The list of fundamental duties does not cover other important duties like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning etc.

Explanation: A. Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable.

Explanation: B. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State: To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39); To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A); To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A); To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

1. legislative function.
2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The phrase 'Directive Principles of State Policy' denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. Noted constitutional author Granville Austin considers DPSP as "positive obligations" of the state.

Explanation: A. The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e. the desire, approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. So, since democracy requires voters' decision making- hence intelligence and character are called in.

Explanation: A. First step towards bringing about equality is of course ending the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste system in India prevented people from the 'lower' castes from doing anything except manual labour. In many countries only people from some families could occupy high positions. Attainment of equality requires that all such restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end.

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. when the President's Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President.

Explanation: D. Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states unlike the American federation.

Explanation: B. Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of 'democratic decentralisation', which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Explanation: C. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

Explanation: B. mechanism for speeding up the activities of the government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc. and Supplementary questions can be asked during the question hour.

1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Private member's bill as a bill introduced by any member of the parliament who's not a minister. The Indian Express report in 2016 says only 14 private members bill have been passed since 1952.

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Correct option is D.

Explanation: C. Constitutional Right.

1. The Election Commission of India is a fivemember body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Election Commission has three election Commissioners. Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Explanation: A. HC to examine the constitutionality of any law.

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Sautrantikas and Sammtiyas as Buddhism sects. And Sarvastivadin sect of Buddhism believes that all things exist, and exist continuously, in the past and the future as well as in the present.

Explanation: A. Correct option A

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

Explanation: B. Motupalli.

1. Lord Cornwallis
2. Alexander Reed
3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Explanation: C. C is correct option.

1. Radhakanta Deb : First President of the British Indian Association
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty : Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
3. Surendranath Banerjee : Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Madras Mahajansabha (1884) was setup by M.Viraghavachari , B.Subramaniya Aiyer and P. Ananda Charlu; India Association (1876): Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose.

Explanation: D. Government of India act 1919 provided for dyarchy in provinces i.e. provincial subjects were classified into two parts 1) transferred and 2) reserved.

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?

Explanation: C. Correct option C.

Explanation: D. The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to examine the nature of relationship between the states and Government.

Explanation: D. The Trade disputes Act of April 1929 imposed a system of tribunals and tried to ban strikes 'undertaken for objects other than furtherance of a trade dispute or if designed to coerce Government and/or inflict hardships on the community.'

1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Lord Ripon introduced the Factory Act of 1881 to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. The Act banned the appointment of children below the age of seven in factories. It reduced the working hours for children. It made compulsory for all dangerous machines in the factories to be properly fenced to ensure security to the workers. In Bombay, middle class philanthropic efforts to improve labour conditions began fairly early with N.M. Lokhende starting weekly Dinabandhu in 1880 and even starting a Bombay Mill-hands Association in 1890.

1. Arasavalli
2. Amarakantak
3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. Andhra Pradesh state Govt. website says Arasavalli in Srikakulam district has sun temple.

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival - Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj JaatYatra - Gonds
3. Wari-Warkari -Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Chaliha Sahib: Sindhi festival regarding Jhulelal; Nanda Raj JaatYatra: Nanda Devi related festival in Uttarakhand. Gonds are not native to this state; Wari-Warkari: Wari is a pilgrimage for the Warkari sect related to Pandharpur god Vithobain Maharashtra, and it's part of Bhakti movement rather than festival of a particular tribal group. Besides, Santhals are not native to this state.

1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. In Manipuri Sankirtana, two drummers and ten singer dancers are usually present. Meaning either cymbals are not the only instrument OR they're using drums instead of cymbals. Males dancers play Pung and Kartal during Manipuri Sankirtana.

1. IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino's impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is an event which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the Indian ocean. A positive IOD leads to greater monsoon rainfall and more active (above normal rainfall) monsoon days while negative IOD leads to less rainfall and more monsoon break days (no rainfall). So yes, IOD can influence El Nino's impact on Monsoon.

Explanation: A. Sumatra.

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Mediterranean Sea doesn't touch Jordan and Iraq.

Explanation: C. Chandipur beach has a unique distinction on its own. Unlike other beaches, the sea water here recedes away from the shore line about five km twice a day, an unusual phenomenon, rarely found anywhere.

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: B. A soil health card provides information about 12 soil parameters, so farmer can use appropriate fertilizers.

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. Crop residues or other organic matter left in or added to the field improve water penetration and moisture retention. Gypsum application can solve the water percolation process.

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. Correct option is D.

Explanation: B. Total seven states.

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Western Ghats are spread over six States: Gujarat ( southern part), Maharastra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamilnadu. Himalaya ought to be passing through international border states only i.e. J&K, Himachal, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunanchal Pradesh.

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. 2 only.

Explanation: B. National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is planning to implement a new computerized tiger monitoring protocol in all tiger reserves of the country known as Monitoring System for Tiger, Intensive Patrolling and Ecological Status (MSTrIPES).

Explanation: B. Even if you eliminate Corbett (Uttrakhand) and Mudumalai (Tamilnadu) for climatic reasons for Lion relocation, still you're left with Sariska (Rajasthan). Sariska being a tiger reserve, would sound unfit for lion immigration.

Explanation: A. Tiger is given as Schedule I animal.

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. The schedule 5 vermin- crow, fruit bat, mice and rat can be killed. Since the animals given in above options are outside that list hence answer is "D".

Explanation: B. Gharials are river dwelling fish-eaters and their only viable population is in the Chambal Sanctuary.

Explanation: A. The Eastern and Western Ghats Meet at Nilgiri hills.

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: B. TRAFFIC is joint program of WWF and IUCN.

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

Explanation: C. The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of a sample of water, is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the water, in terms of how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have BOD value of less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more.

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using micro-organisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Biosparging is an in-Situ Bioremediation techniques in which we inject the air under pressure below the water table to enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria.

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. Carbon sequestration may be carried out by pumping carbon into carbon sinks of two types: Natural sinks- ocean, forest, soil etc; and Artificial sink- depleted oil reserve, unminable mines. And deep Saline Formations infact have highest capacity for this.

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. algae and cyanobacteria biomass production in the U.S. desert Southwest could be perceived as a good use of low-value land by some, but as an intrusion into pristine land by others. Similarly, the use of genetically modified organisms in production systems could affect social acceptability. Open Algal ponds will attract insect larvae invasion and affect predator-prey balance. This is ecological concern.

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. Correct option is A.

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. CCAC was formed in 2012 by UNEP and Ghana, Bangladesh etc. countries. CCAC focus on Short Lived Climate Pollutants such as methane, black carbon and hydro-fluorocarbons.

Explanation: C. Reproductive cloning of animals.

1. Lipstick : Lead
2. Soft drinks : Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food : Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Mono sodium Glutamate (MSG) is a flavor enhancer in Chinese food, but leads to obesity and liver inflation. Brominated vegetable oils are used as stabilizers in the baked goods, soft drinks, soups, jellies etc. but banned in UK after 1970.

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Dengue, Zika and chikungunya are spread through a common vector, the Aedes aegypti mosquito. Although Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquitoes, it can also be sexually transmitted as well.

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Explanation: C. OLEDs can be formed on any substrate such as glasses, cloths, plastic and other bendable substrates.

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. NPCI is a not-for-profit company formed by various banks, with primary objective of providing cost-effective payment solutions to the banks. NPCI's solutions such as IMPS, BHIM, RuPay, AEPS etc. have indeed helped in financial inclusion. NPCI launched Rupay card in 2012.

Explanation: A. Mobile wallets will not be necessary, because your mobile number is directly linked with the bank account using bank's 'customized app' which is built on the UPI platform.

1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. MPC has 6 members, not 12; and it's headed by RBI governor and not Finance Minister.

1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. While directly or indirectly all three will be encouraged because of Small Finance banks.

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the 'Current Account Deficit' of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. Correct option is A.

1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. 1 and 3 only.

1. Tax revenue as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation: A. Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government's education system and local communities.

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog
2. It has a corpus of 4, 00,000crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. NIIF is under Department of Economic Affairs. It was setup in Budget 2015, with Rs.40k crores, but even if counting the recent allotments till Budget 2017, the 4 lakh amount is unrealistic.

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. 1, 2 and 4 only.

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. HRD Ministry has launched an initiative called 'Vidyanjali' to encourage youngsters to volunteer their services at any neighborhood government school. Vidyanjali will cover initiatives under CSR, PPP, PSU. But mobilization of voluntary monetary contribution is not the primary and explicit 'purpose' of the scheme. And the scheme is targeted at primary (Class 1 to 5) and upper primary classes (Class 6 to 8) so 'secondary schools' infrastructure facilities' are beyond its scope of work. HRD ministry's other schemes specifically count class 9 onwards as 'secondary education'.

1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
2. Share of India's exports in world trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India's foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. 2, 3 and 4 only.

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 only.

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both statements are correct.

Explanation: B. eLISA aims to measure gravitational waves in the frequency range from 0.1mHz to about 100 mHz.

Explanation: A. Nature is governed by four fundamental forces - electromagnetic, strong, weak and gravitational. Standard Model explains the first three forces. Event horizon is the imaginary boundary surrounding the black hole from beyond which light cannot escape and the singularity constitutes the centre of a black hole and is hidden by the object's "surface".

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO's Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. TFA came into force from February 2017.

Explanation: A. India-EU BTIA negotiation has been going on for years, because of differences over data security, child labour and IPR.

Explanation: C. Term was coined by EU in 2015, and was in news again in March-2016 because of Brussel Summit.

1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both 1 and 2.

Explanation: C. In May 2016, India and Iran signed the "historic" Chabahar port agreement, which has the potential of becoming India's gateway to Afghanistan, Central Asia and Europe.

Explanation: A. American companies contend that India's Jawaharlal Nehru Solar Mission gives preference to procurement of solar panels with Indian content. This is one type of non-tariff barrier. WTO ruled in their favour.

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Labour Ministry launched this portal in 2015.

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. B is correct option.

Explanation: A. Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. HRD Ministry's Smart India Hackathon is a 36 hours non-stop digital programming competition during which student teams will compete to offer innovative solutions for any given problem.

1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. In the pursuance of section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the "IT Act"), Central Government issued the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013, these CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action.