Explanation: A. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in these areas. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India contains provisions concerning the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

Explanation: D. The Supreme Court of India is the apex court in India. As stated by the Indian Constitution, the function of the Supreme Court of India is that of the custodian of the Constitution.

Explanation: D. The idea behind incorporation of fundamental duties was to remind the citizens of the country that they have certain obligations towards the country and society. The fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. There were ten fundamental duties at the time of incorporation but the eleventh was inserted by the 86th Amendment in 2002. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is one of the fundamental duty mentioned in the constitution.

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

Explanation: D. Correct option is D.

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

Explanation: D. The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible to the legislature for all its actions. The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: B. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants ( which is the exclusive privilage of the Lok- Sabha.

Explanation: A. In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of member both the houses present and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses.

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: D. The Executive powers of the Union of India is vested in the President. The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.

1. People's participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Financial mobilization is not the fundamental objective of PRls. Even though Panchayats have the powers to collect revenue.

Explanation: B. Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was built during the reign of Ashoka in 250 BC. Lingaraja Temple at Bhubneshwar was built by Yayati (1025-1040). Rockcut monuments at Mahabalipuram were built during 7th-8th century AD during the reign of Pallavas. Varaha Image at Udaygiri was built by Chandragupta II of Gupta Empire.

1. Champaka : Central India
2. Durgara : Jammu
3. Kuluta : Malabar

Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. States such as Champaka (Chamba), Durgara (Jammu), Trigarta (Jalandhar), Kuluta (Kulu), Kumaon and Garhwal managed to remain outside the main areas of conflict in the northern plains.

1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region's architecture
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. In the fourteenth and fifteenth century gun powder was used for military purpose in India and even artillery in its rudimentary form was known. The Babur's first real expedition took place in India in 1519 when he captured Bhera. The Delhi Sultanate's greatest contribution to Indian fine arts was the introduction of Islamic architectural features, including true domes and arches, and the integration of Indian and Islamic styles of architecture. The Timurid dynasty was a Sunni Muslim dynasty. Members of the Timurid dynasty were strongly influenced by the Persian culture and had established two well-known empires in history, namely the Timurid Empire (1370-1507) in Persia and Central Asia and the Mughal Empire (1526-1857) in the Indian subcontinent.

Explanation: C. Vijayanagara or "city of victory" was the name of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula, (Krishna-Tungabhadra doab). It was founded by Harihara 1 and Bukka, in 1336.

Explanation: D. In India, Banjara people were transporters of goods from one place to another and the goods they transported included salt, grains, firewood and cattle.Thus, Banjaras were trader-nomads.

1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority.
2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land.
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. A person became a vassal by pledging political allegiance and providing military, political, and financial service to a lord. A lord possessed complete sovereignty over land or acted in the service of another sovereign, usually a king. If a lord acted in the service of a king, the lord was considered a vassal of the king. As part of the feudal agreement, the lord promised to protect the vassal and provided the vassal with a plot of land. This land could be passed on to the vassal's heirs, giving the vassal tenure over the land.

1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R. C. Dutt

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt, Ranade, Gokhale, G. Subramania Iyer, were among those who grounded Indian nationalism firmly on the foundation of anti-imperialism by fashioning the world's first economic critique of colonialism, before Hobson and Lenin.

Explanation: B. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms which became the Government of India Act in 1919 clearly defined the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments.

Explanation: A. Surat split is an important event in the modern history of India. It took place in 1907 when the moderates parted company with the Extremists. The split in the congress was due to many reasons. The Moderates had controlled the congress from its very beginning and had their own ways of thinking and doing which were not acceptable to the younger generations who were impatient with the speed at which the moderates were moving and leading the nation. This was the time of Swadeshi Movement.

1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: D. All statements are wrong.

1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. The Rowlatt committee was a Sedition Committee appointed in 1918 by the British Indian Government with Mr Justice Rowlatt, an English judge, as its president. The purpose of the committee was to evaluate political terrorism in India, especially Bengal and Punjab. In organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to utilize three types of political networks - The Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan islamist groups and a satyagraha sabha which he himself started in Bombay on 24 February.

Explanation: B. C. Rajagopalachari organized a march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast to break the salt law in April 1930.

1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: B. Annie Besant was the first woman President of Indian National Congress. She presided over the 1917 Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress. Badruddin Tyabji was the "First Muslim" to become the "President of Indian National Congress".

Explanation: A. Kalamkari painting is a type of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile which are produced in parts of India and in Iran. The Machilipatnam Kalamkari craft made at Pedana nearby Machilipatnam in Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. It evolved with patronage of the Mughals and the Golconda sultanate.

1. The winds which blow between 30
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Westerlies are prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude. They originate from the high-pressure areas in the horse latitudes and tend towards the poles and steer extra tropical cyclones in this general manner. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of gravitational forces exerted by the Moon, Sun, and rotation of the Earth.

Explanation: B. The passage points out equatorial region.

Explanation: A. Correct option is A.

Explanation: A. The Earth's rotation on its axis explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current. If the earth would have been rotating east to west, the piled up water would have come down on the west side. Therefore, essentially it's the earth's rotation that explains the eastward flow of equatorial counter current.

Explanation: B. Jordan does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea.

Explanation: A. In the present-day Meghalaya state of northeast India is a form of tree shaping, which creates these suspension bridges, they are handmade from the aerial roots of living banyan fig trees.

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do 'Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests' occur?

Explanation: C. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests are found in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar Island and on the eastern and western slopes of the Western Ghats in such states as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Maharashtra.

Explanation: D. Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat are the easternmost and westernmost States.

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

Explanation: D. Major tributaries of the river include the Purna (South), Pravara, Indravati, Manjira River, Bindusara River, Sabari River, Wainganga, and Wardha River. Pranahita is the name given to the combined flow of the rivers Wardha and Wainganga.

Explanation: D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands is rich in biodiversity. Different types of forests as Tropical Evergreen forests, Moist Deciduous forests, Mangrove forests, Littoral forests are found here.

1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Banaras Brocades and Sarees (Logo) has been accorded 'Geographical Indication' status. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma is not in the list of Geographical Indications in Indus - Therefore option 'C' is correct.

Explanation: B. Capital-augmenting technological progress results in the more productive use of existing capital goods; for example, the substitution of steel from wooden ploughs in agricultural production.

Explanation: B. Seed village concept is to promote the quality seed production of foundation and certified seed classes. The area which is suitable for raising a particular crop will be selected, and raised with single variety of a kind. Suitable area for seed production will be identified by the Scientists. The foundation/ certified seeds or University labelled seeds will be supplied by the University through Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) and Research Stations at 50% subsidy cost to the identified farmers in the area. The farmers will use these quality seeds and take up their own seed production in a small area (1 acre) for their own use. The crops are Rice, Pulses and Oilseeds.

1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Excessive / inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers increase the acidity of soil and Leaching of nitrate to the ground water.

Explanation: B. Agricultural Produce Market Committee Acts of respective states are responsible for markets in agricultural products.

Explanation: C. Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' and 'Peace Clause' are related to World Trade Organisation.

1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)' efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries (activities commonly referred to as REDD+).

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as 'Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas'.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity. It is working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World's largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations. An Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) is an area recognized as being globally important habitat for the conservation of bird populations. The program was developed and sites are identified by BirdLife International.

Explanation: A. The tropical moist deciduous forests are found in Sahyadris, the north-eastern parts of the peninsula and along the foothills of the Himalayas. Teak and sal are found in these forests.

Explanation: C. An ecosystem includes all of the living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their nonliving environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere).

1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non - Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. IREDA is a Public Limited Government Company which was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987 under the administrative control of MNRE to promote, develop and extend financial assistance for renewable energy and energy efficiency /conservation projects with the motto: "Energy For Ever".

Explanation: B. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park located in Manipur. It is 40 km in area and the only floating park in the world which is located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. IUCN is not an organ of UN. It has observer and consultative status at the United Nations.

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. The dugong is a medium-sized marine mammal. Dugong is listed under schedule 1 of India Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. In 2008, a MoU was signed between the Ministry of Environment and Forests and the Government of India, in order to conserve dugongs. In fact the highest level of legal protection is accorded to dugongs in India.

Explanation: C. The Gangetic dolphins have been declared as the National Aquatic Animal of India .River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.

Explanation: B. The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.

Explanation: A. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Summit or Earth Summit. It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992. In 2012, the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development was also held in Rio, and is also commonly called Rio+20 or Rio Earth Summit 2012.

1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. The Fund is governed by the GCF Board. The assets of the GCF will be administered by a trustee only for the purpose of, and in accordance with, the relevant decisions of the GCF Board. The World Bank was invited by the COP to serve as the interim trustee of the GCF, subject to a review three years after operation of the Fund.

1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Due to recession in 2008, the growth rate of the Indian economy had declined for the next few years from 8-9% to 5-6%. Even though the growth rate had declined, it never became negative. So, the GDP at market prices has always increased year on year since last one decade.

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation: C. When inflation becomes very high, the RBI decreases supply of money (to check inflation) by adopting tight monetary policy. Decreasing the money circulation decreases the demand of goods and services, which helps in controlling the inflation. It is mainly effective in case of demand pull inflation.

1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. To reduce the budget deficit, the government has to increase income and reduce Expenditure. Introducing new welfare schemes and Expanding industries will increase the government expenditure.

Explanation: A. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

Explanation: C. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, Banking/ Savings & Deposit Accounts, Remittance, Credit, Insurance, Pension in an affordable manner.

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sectorspecific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Union Government accepted the 14th Finance Commission's recommendation to devolve an unprecedented 42 per cent of the divisible pool to states during 20015-16 to 2019-20, against 32 per cent suggested by the previous commission.

Explanation: C. Convertibility of rupee implies freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa. Currency Convertibility is the ease with which a country's currency can be converted into gold or another currency.

Explanation: D. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the Planning Commission. The Union Government of India announced formation of NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015 and the first meeting of NITI Aayog was held on 8 February 2015.

Explanation: C. The coal found in India is mainly of non-coking quality and hence coking coal has to be imported. 70% of the steel produced today uses coal. Coking coal is a vital ingredient in the steel making process.

Explanation: B. Electricity generation (weight: 10.32%) increased by 3.5% in July, 2015. Its cumulative index during April to July, 2015-16 increased by 2.0 % over the corresponding period of previous year.

Explanation: C. The labour Bureau brings out "consumer price index numbers" for industrial workers.

Explanation: B. Basel III is a comprehensive set of reform measures which was developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision and to strengthen the regulation, supervision and risk management of the banking sector. These measures aim to: Improve the banking sector's ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever the source; improve risk management and governance; strengthen banks' transparency and disclosures.

1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component/ components of Monetary Policy?

Explanation: C. The RBI implements the monetary policy through open market operations, bank rate policy, reserve system, credit control policy, moral persuasion and through many other instruments.

Explanation: C. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points; the Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates.

1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Explanation: A. When pure hydrogen is used as the fuel, the only by-products generated from the fuel cell are pure water and heat. Similar to a battery, a fuel cell with a supply of hydrogen and oxygen can be used to power devices that use electricity.

1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Fly ash brick (FAB) is a building material, specifically masonry units, containing class C fly ash and water. All fly ash includes substantial amounts of silicon dioxide (SiO2) aluminum oxide (Al2O3) and calcium oxide (CaO), the main mineral compounds in coal-bearing rock strata. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.

Explanation: D. H1N1 flu is also known as swine flu. The cause of swine flu is an influenza A virus type designated as H1N1.

1. The decomposition of human waste in the biotoilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The bio-toilets are fitted underneath the lavatories and the human waste discharged into them is acted upon by a particular kind of bacteria that converts it into CO2, CH4 and non-corrosive neutral water. The new-age green toilets have been designed by Railways along with Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) keeping in mind the requirements of Indian trains.

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are used in Assessment of crop productivity, Locating groundwater resources and Mineral exploration. This system was launched in 1979 and 1981. This system is used in agriculture, water resources, forestry and ecology, geology, marine fisheries and coastal management. It is the largest constellation of the remote sensing satellites.

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology. Medical nanotechnology can largely contribute to genetic therapy and improvement. Diseases can be easily treated if approached at the genetic level. So instead of treating diseases based on the symptoms, nanotechnology will help medical practitioners treat the problem by looking at the root cause.

1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

Explanation: A. NPT designated nuclear weapon states are China, France, Russia, United Kingdom and the United States. The NPT is a landmark international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology and to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and complete disarmament. It is opened for signature in 1968 and the Treaty entered into force in 1970.

Explanation: B. Amnesty International is a non-governmental organisation focused on human rights. It was founded in London in 1961 by the lawyer Peter Benenson. It draws attention to human rights abuses and campaigns for compliance with international laws and standards.

Explanation: D. The World Bank issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report periodically.

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. At present, India is not a member of APEC and ASEAN. The East Asia Summit (EAS) is a forum held annually by leaders of 16 countries in the East Asian region. The first summit was held in Kuala Lumpur (Malaysia) on 14 December 2005. India is the member of this forum.

1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India's premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. National Innovation Foundation India (NIF) is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology , Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmadabad, Gujarat, India to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country.

1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar : Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. The town of Srisailam is reputed for the shrine of Lord Mallikarjuna on the flat top of Nallamala Hills. Omkareshwar is one of the Dwadasa jyotirlingas situated on the Mandhata hills in Vindhya Mountains of Madhya Pradesh. Pushkar is located along Ratnagiri Hills in Rajasthan.

Explanation: C. Dollars and hard currencies are used for payments in international trade, investment and liquidation of international debt. So if there is shortage of liquidity, this means scarcity of Dollars and hard currencies to carry on the above transactions. That is why even SDR was introduced by IMF.

Explanation: B. Fortaleza declaration was part of 6th BRICS summit which resulted in the official inauguration of the New Development Bank.

Explanation: C. The Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted by the Fourth World Conference on Women in 1995. The Platform for Action reaffirms the fundamental principle that the rights of women and girls are an "inalienable, integral and indivisible part of universal human rights." The Platform for Action also calls upon governments to take action to address several critical areas of concern, among them violence against women.

Explanation: B. Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia were in news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently.

Explanation: B. Golan Heights are located in Syria. However, the two-thirds of the western region are currently occupied by Israel, whereas the one-third of eastern region is controlled by Syria.

Explanation: C. Description is righ. "Goldilocks Zone," is the region around a star that has just the right conditions to find liquid water on a planet's surface. And liquid water is a key ingredient in the search for life.

1. It is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
3. It is buried deep in the ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. IceCube is an enormous particle detector located deep in the ice at the South Pole. IceCube is the world's largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice. The IceCube telescope is a powerful tool to search for dark matter and could reveal the physical processes associated with the enigmatic origin of the highest energy particles in nature. Buried deep within the East Antarctic ice sheet at the South Pole, a giant high-energy neutrino observatory due for completion in 2009 could provide scientists, including from Europe, with an unprecedented window to the Universe, as well as a means to answer some of the most fundamental questions of astrophysics and cosmology.

Explanation: A. Odia (Odiya) language on 20 February 2014 became the sixth language of the country to get classical language' status after the Union Cabinet approved it. Odia is billed as the first language from the Indo-Aryan linguistic group and the case for making it a classical language was also premised on the fact that it has no resemblance to Hindi, Sanskrit, Bengali and Telugu. With this, Odia came into the same league as Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam, which have already been conferred the classical language status.

Explanation: C. Indian space agency ISRO was conferred the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 in recognition of its contribution in strengthening international cooperation in peaceful use of outer space.