Explanation: D. The 52nd Amendment act of 1985, added 10th schedule to the Constitution. This is often referred to as anti-defection law.

Explanation: B. Promotion of international peace and security is included in the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 51 of constitution that mentions to promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations between nations; to foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlements of international disputes by arbitration.

Explanation: B. It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Loksabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a noconfidence motion. But the word "no confidence motion" itself is not mentioned in Constitution. It comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. No confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok Sabha.

Explanation: B. The largest Committee is the committee of Estimates, given its 30 members.

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. The governor has Constitutional discretion in cases of Reservation of bill for consideration of the President and Recommendation of the imposition of President's rule. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. Moreover Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. So Governor doesn

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat includes preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in budget is the task of finance ministry.

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty vis-a-vis State Authority.

Explanation: C. The original jurisdiction of supreme court includes disputes between (i) The centre and one or more states; or (ii) The centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or (iii) Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Meaning, no other count can decide such disputes.

1. A grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below : Ajanta
2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rock : Mount Abu
3. "Arjuna's Penance"/ "Descent of Ganga" sculpted on the surface of huge boulders : Mamallapuram

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. is correctly matched because Parinirvana of the Buddha in Cave 17 of Ajanta, with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below, is one of the grandest and yet most delicately expressive scenes ever made in stone. 2 is wrong because huge image of Varaha Avatar of Vishnu, as herescues Goddess Earth from the deepand chaotic waters, sculpted on rock is found in Mamallapuram. 3 is right because Arjuna's Penance "Descent of Ganga" sculpted on thesurface of huge boulders is found in Mamallapuram.

1. Tabo monastery and temple complex : Spiti Valley
2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, Nako : Zanskar Valley
3. Alchi temple complex : Ladakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Tabo monastery and temple complex is in Spiti Valley and Alchi temple complex is in Ladakh. Lhotsava Lhakhang, Nako is in Himachal Pradesh. Zanskar Valley is in Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation: C. Lokayata and Kapalika do not form of Six system of Indian philosophy.

Explanation: D. The words Satyameva Jayate came from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'Truth Alone Triumphs'.

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Buddh born in Lumbini, in Kosala kingdom.Buddh died in Kusinara, in Magadha kingdom. Avanti lay outside the area visited by buddha, and was converted to his teaching by his disciple Mahakaccana. Gandhara is western part of Pakistan & Afghanistan and Buddha never went to Pakistan.

Explanation: C. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions on every Thursday to debate on religious issues raised by Akbar.

Explanation: B. In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for village headmen.

Explanation: C. The Radcliffe Line is a boundary demarcation line between India and Pakistan upon the Partition of India. The Radcliffe Line was named after its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe.

Explanation: B. In 1911 King George V visited India. A durbar was held at Delhi and The capital of India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi also Partition of Bengal was annulled.

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States.
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.
3. To regulate East India Company's trade with India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. The object/objects of Queen Victoria's Proclamation (1858) were to disclaim any intention to annex, Indian States as the announcement reversed Lord Dalhousie's pre-war policy of political unification through princely state annexation.It was also to place the Indian administration under the British Crown , Therefore, statement 1 & 2 are correct. However it was not to regulate East India Company's trade with India so statement 3 is wrong.

Explanation: B. Manganiyars

Explanation: A. The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary association founded by Punjabi Indians, in the United States and Canada with the aim to gaining India's independence from British rule. Key members included Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose. It had its headquarters at San Francisco.

Explanation: B. The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress.

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: D. Sattriya dance form was introduced in the 15th century A.D by the great Vaishnava saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurusha Sankara deva as a powerful medium for propagation of the Vaishnava faith. It is a neo-Vaishnava treasure of Assamese music, dance and drama. Music of Sattriya dance comprises of classical ragas (melodies), talas (rhythms) and traditional songs. Tulsidas, Kabir and Mira were Vaishnavite.

Explanation: D. Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of Kerala/ South India.

1. Garba : Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Yakshgana is a theatre form of Karnataka. Mohiniattam is from Kerala and Garba is a dance form from Gujarat.

1. Bijak' is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Statement 1 is wrong because Kabir founded a community

1. Gujarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as Classical Language/ Languages by the Government?

Explanation: C. The languages declared as 'Classical Language/ Languages' by the Government are Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odiya. Following six languages are included in the list of Classical Languages: Tamil (since 2004) Sanskrit (since 2005) Telugu (since 2008) Kannada (Since 2008) Malayalam (since 2013) Odiya (since 2014).

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Agni IV is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by solid propellant. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 4000 km away.

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. All are correct.

1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Continental Drift has effected the evolution of animals, the world's geographical positions and the world's climates. The split of the original super land mass Pangea into Gondwanaland and the laurasia created new geographical/climatic regions. The rearrangement and displacement of huge landmasses has helped create the diversity which we see in modern day species. The final stages of evolution of Genus Homo occurs in the last 3 glacial cycles.

Explanation: B. Turkey's smaller part is in Southeastern Europe and its larger part in Western Asia which is located between Black Sea and Mediterranean.

1. Chechnya : Russian Federation
2. Darfur : Mali
3. Swat Valley : Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. The Chechen Republic is a federal subject (a republic) of Russia. Darfur is a region in western Sudan. Swat is a valley and an administrative district in Pakistan.

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. The correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north is Jakarta-Singapore-Bangkok and Hanoi.

Explanation: B. Chanderi in Madhyapradesh and Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu are famous for Silk sarees.

Explanation: B. Chanderi in Madhyapradesh and Kancheepuram in Tamil Nadu are famous for Silk sarees.

1. NH 4 Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6 Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15 Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. NH 4 is a major National Highway in Western and Southern India. It connects Mumbai with Chennai. NH 6, runs through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal state in India. It connects Surat with Kolkata. NH 15 is a major National Highway in Western and Northwestern India. NH 15 connects Samakhiali in Gujarat with Pathankot in Punjab.

Explanation: C. Monsoon is the only climate which is having reversal of wind between seasons.

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

Explanation: B. Rivers Lohit and Subansiri flow through Arunachal Pradesh. River Barak flows in south Assam and Manipur. River lohit and subanseri flows through Arunachal Pradesh. Barak river flows in south Assam and Manipur.

1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas and Satluj
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park : Confluence of Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Harike Wetlands is at Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej. The Keoladeo National Park formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur is at the confluence of two rivers, the Gambhir and Banganga. Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh. Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari delta.

1. Cardamom Hills : Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills : Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills : Central India
4. Mikir Hills : North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. The Cardamom Hills are southern hills of India and part of the southern Western Ghats located in southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu. They are not in coromandel coast. Kaimur Range is the eastern portion of the Vindhya Range extending from Madhya Pradesh to Bihar. They are not in konkan coast. The Mahadeo Hills are in Madhya Pradesh, state of central India.Mikir hills are in assam i.e. in North East India.

1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Explanation: A. Oak and Rhododendron is found in Himalayan region while sandalwood is found in South India.

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The Changpa are a semi-nomadic Tibetan ethnic group found mainly in Zanskar region of Jammu and Kashmir. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

1. Kinnaur : Areca nut
2. Mewat : Mango
3. Coromandel : Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Kinnaur (Himachal) is famous for apples. Areca nut mostly confined to Karnataka, Kerala and Assam. Mewat in haryana is not famous for mango. UP is famous for mango. Similarly, coromandel coast is not famous for soya beans.Top two producers of soya are Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra which are outside coromandel coast. Therefore, (D) is the correct option.

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. All three statements are correct as Maize can be used for the production of starch.Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

1. Drought-Prone Area Programme : Ministry of Agriculture
2. Desert Development Programme and Forests : Ministry of Environment
3. National Watershed Project Development for Rainfed Areas: Ministry of Rural Development

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. The draught prone area programme is by ministry of Rural development to minimise the adverse effects of drought on production of crops and livestock and productivity of land, water and human resources. The desert development programme is also by ministry of Rural development to minimise the adverse effect of drought and control desertification. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas is by ministry of agriculture.

1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country's perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Explanation: C. Integrated Watershed Management Programme (IWMP) was launched during 2009-10.It aims at Prevention of soil runoff, Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table and Regeneration of natural vegetation.

Explanation: B. Guar gum is used in hydraulic fracturing technology during shale gas extraction.

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Vegetative reproduction is a form of asexual reproduction in plants. It is a process by which new organisms arise without production of seeds .It helps in development of clones. Vegetative propagation involves only mitosis, this ensures that the genetic information in DNA of vegetative progeny (child) is same as in the mother plant and can be practiced throughout the year. However it does not helps in elimination of viruses. Plant once systematically infected with a virus, usually remains infected for its lifetime. Thus any vegetative parts taken for propagation remains infected.

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?

Explanation: D. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture aims at guaranteeing food security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the world's plant genetic resources for food and agriculture. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification is a Convention to combat desertification and mitigate the effects of drought. The World Heritage Convention is concerned with the protection of the world cultural and natural heritage.All three of them have a bearing on the biodiversity.

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and businesses to turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Explanation: A. Diatoms are autotrophs which prepare their own food. Crustaceans are herbivorous animals which feed on diatoms. Herrings are carnivorous animals which feed on Crustaceans. This completes the food chain. Diatoms are autotrophs, prepare their own food. Crustaceans eats diatoms. Crustaceans are members of zooplankons and are eaten by Herring fish when small.

Explanation: A. The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Bombay Natural History Society is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged in conservation and biodiversity research. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Explanation: A. It is an independent financial organization which works with countries on environmental issues.

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Dampa Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram. Saramati peak is in Nagaland. It is located near Tuensang town with a height of 3,826 m. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is famous wildlife reserve in Tripura.

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. This organization is in partnership but not formed by Ramsar convention. The organization was formed in 1954 and Ramsar convention was signed in 1971. "Wetlands International", It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct as per WWF and environment ministry.

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Brominated flame retardants used in many household products are highly resistant to degradation in the environment and they are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

Explanation: C. Hibernation is a state of inactivity and metabolic depression in endothermsis characterized by low body temperature, slow breathing and heart rate, and low metabolic rate. It is found in Bat ,bear and rodents etc.

1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Volcanic action, Respiration and decay of organic matter adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth. However, photosynthesis uses Carbon dioxide to produce food.

1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. Common Myna are birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. The common myna is readily identified by the brown body, black hooded head and the bare yellow patch behind the eye.

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. Eco-sensitive zones are ecological important area under environment protection Act 1986 around national parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibiting resting certain human activities in the zone.

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The Animal Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under Section 4 of The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is set up under the Chairmanship of the Minister for Environment and Forests and is a statutory body. National Ganga River Basin Authority was established by the Central Government of India, on 20 February 2009. The Prime Minister is the chair of the Authority.

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Coral reefs are diverse underwater ecosystems held together by calcium carbonate structures secreted by corals. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Mannar have coral reefs. However Sunderbans do not have coral reef.

1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with deforestataion. Terace cultivation helps in less erosion of soil.

Explanation: A. Biosphere reserves are established under UNESCO's Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. Biosphere Reserves Combine Protected areas with zones where sustainable development is nurtured by native dwellers.

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. Rise in temperature by 3

Explanation: B. In organisms called lichens, a chlorophyll containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together. Fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga provides food which it prepares by photosynthesis.

1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. In steel furnace coke reacts with iron to release pollutants like Oxides of sulphur, Oxides of nitrogen, Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide.

Explanation: B. The festival starts with the green march celebrating the beginning of the rains and new sowingseason during which planting of sapling of fruit bearing trees is done on mass scale.

1. Coal bed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Shale gas contains methane. Shale gas resources exist in India.

Explanation: D. 12th Five Year Plan of the Government of India (2012-17) aims at faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

Explanation: A. Marginal Standing Facility rate is the rate at which banks borrow funds overnight from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) against approved government securities. Net Demand and time liability is the sum of demand and time liability of Banks with public and other banks wherein assets with other banks is subtracted to get net liability of other bank.

Explanation: C. When interest rates decreases then investment expenditure by businesses on capital goods like factories and equipment will increase in an economy.

1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Non-plan expenditure covers interest payments, subsidies (mainly on food and fertilisers), wage and salary payments to government employees, grants to States and Union Territories governments, pensions, police, economic services in various sectors, defence, loans to public enterprises, loans to States, Union Territories and foreign governments.

Explanation: D. Taxes on tooth paste come under GST which is administered by State government. Sales tax is paid to sales tax authority in the state from where the goods are moved.

Explanation: B. Venture capital (VC) is a long term financial capital provided to early-stage, high-potential, growth startup companies or new companies.

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. We have a National Seed policy made in 2002. So 1 is not a constraint. The private sector produces high-priced seeds but in lower volume. It supplies nearly the entire hybrid seeds required for vegetables. So 2 is not a constraint. In the case of low value and high volume crops such as wheat and rice, farmers tend to use their own preserved seeds as there is demand and supply gap. So 3 is a constraint.

1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. The current account consists of the balance of trade and balance of invisibles.

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: C. Besides giving access to banking, it also enables government subsidies and social security benefits to be directly credited to the accounts of the beneficiaries, enabling them to draw the money from the bank saathi or business correspondents in their village itself.

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2. To make the people's deposits with banks safe and liquid
3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: A. Correct option is A.

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: B. Chemical changes occur when a substance combines with another to form a new substance. Crystallization of sodium chloride is not a chemical as water of crystallization can be lost to get salt again. Similarly melting of ice is reversible .However souring of milk is a chemical change as it is not reversible and a new compound is formed.

Explanation: B. In photosynthesis the free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.

Explanation: A. Mite, Spider and Scorpion belong to the category of Arachnids, while Crabs belong to the category of crustaceans.

1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation: D. Biometrics identification is used in computer science as a form of identification and access control. Biometric identifiers are the distinctive, measurable characteristics used to label individuals. Biometric identifiers are categorized as physiological versus behavioral characteristics. Physiological Biometric identifiers are fingerprint, palm veins, face recognition, DNA, palm print, hand geometry, iris recognition, retina and odour/scent. Behavioural identifiers are typing rhythm, gait and voice.

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

Explanation: B. Smallpox is the only disease eradicated from India. The last known small pox case was reported in 1965 from Katihar district, Bihar.

1. Vitamin C : Scurvy
2. Vitamin D : Rickets
3. Vitamin E : Night blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Deficiency of vitamin C causes Scurvy, disease of gums. Deficiency of vitamin D causes Rickets, disease of bones and Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness, disease of eyes.

1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the 'Arctic Council'?

Explanation: D. The Arctic Council is a high-level intergovernmental forum that addresses issues faced by the Arctic governments and the indigenous people of the Arctic. It has eight member countries: Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia, Sweden, and the United States.

Explanation: A. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to 22nd March of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 355 days and on 21 March in leap year.

Explanation: A. The World Economic Outlook (WEO) database contains selected macroeconomic data series from the statistical appendix of the World Economic Outlook report prepared by IMF.

Explanation: C. Panchayatana is a style of temple construction that has a central shrine surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. BRICS is the acronym for an association of five major emerging national economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The grouping was originally known as "BRIC" before the inclusion of South Africa in 2010. The BRIC first formal summit held in Yekaterinburg, commenced on 16 June, 2009.

Explanation: D. The Arab Spring is a revolutionary wave of demonstrations, protests and civil wars in the Arab world that began on 18 December 2010 and spread throughout the countries of the Arab League. It originally started from Tunisia.