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UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2013

1. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

Explanation: C. The members of the constituent Assembly from the provinces were indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

2. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Explanation: C. Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and State government of India to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. DPSPs aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state. They act as a check on the government. It is a yardstick in the hands of the people to measure the performance of the government. It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

3. Consider the following statements:
  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. An amendment to the constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in either house of the parliament. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of at least half of the states.

4. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. National Development council is not a constitutional body. It is an extra-constitutional body. Planning Commission is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body. It was created by the Govt. of India in 1950 by a resolution. Zonal councils were set up under the states Re-Organization Act, 1956 (So it is not a constitutional body) to faster inter-state cooperation and co-ordination among the states. Currently there are total five zonal councils viz Northern, Western, Eastern, Central and Southern.

5. Consider the following statements:
  1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government. Planning for economic development and social justice is one such power given to village panchayats. There are 52 items in the concurrent list. Economic and social planning is placed under entry no. 20. Article -40 of the constitution of India has the provision for organisation of vilage panchayats Directive Principles of state policy lays down that the state shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self government. Accordingly village panchayats have been entrusted with the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. The national development council includes members of the planning commission, but it is a separate body.

6. Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in

Explanation: B. The Preamble to the Constitution of India in its introductory statement says- "Justice- Social, Economic and Political" and the Directive Principles of state policies aim to create social and economic condition under which the citizens can lead a good life. They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.

7. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

Explanation: A. When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.

8. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

9. Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can
  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.

10. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

Explanation: D. Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- 'entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries'.

11. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. The cabinet is headed by the prime minister and is advised by the cabinet secretary who also acts as the head of Indian Administrative service.

12. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Article

13. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

14. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

Explanation: D. Section C of the Forest Dwellers Act provides a transparent three step procedure for deciding on who gets rights. Firstly, the Gram Sabha makes a recommendation i.e, who has been cultivating land for how long, which minor forest produce is collected; etc. The Gram Sabha plays this role because it is a public body where all people participate and hence is fully democratic and transparent. The Gram Sabha's recommendation goes through two stages of screening committees- the Taluka and the District levels.

15. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Explanation: D. D is correct option.

16. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. In every state, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.

17. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:
  1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
  2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Sankhya yoga believes that self

18. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

Explanation: A. The concept of Nirvana was originally explained by Lord Buddha (566-486 BC). The word 'Nirvana' comes from the root meaning 'to blow out' and refers to the extinguishing of the fires of greed, hatred, and delusion. When these emotional and psychological defilements are destroyed by wisdom, the mind becomes free, radiant, and joyful and he who has realized the Truth (Nirvana) is the happiest being in the world. He is free from all complexes and obsessions. He does not repent the past nor does he brood over the future. He lives fully in present. He appreciates and enjoys things in life in the purest sense without self projections. He is free from the thirst of becoming and the illusion of self. Buddhism explain Nivrana as a state of bliss or peace.

19. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
  1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
  2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
  3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. Indus valley people did not possess great palaces and temples rather the civilization was noted for its cities built of brick, roadside drainage system and multistoried houses. Indus valley people were peace loving. They were never engaged in any war. However speculations have been rife that some tectonic forces destroyed the civilization. Some historians are of the view that invasion of Aryans, sea level changes, earthquakes might have brought the civilization to its end therefore people employing horse drawn chariots in warfare is not true. Moreover, Indus valley seals show swastika, animals which is suggestive of their religious beliefs. In view of large number of figurines found in Indus valley, some scholars believe they worshipped mother goddess symbolizing fertility. They worshipped a father God who might be a progenitor of the race and was a probably a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the Animals.

20. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
  1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
  2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
  3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. "Swadhyay Paramam Tap" According to Jain doctrines Penance washes away all the blemishes and purges the soul of all karmic matter. Also, according to Jainism, Karma is the bane of the soul. Karma not only encompasses the causality of transmigration but it is also conceived as an extremely subtle matter which infiltrates the soul, obscuring its natural, transparent, pure qualities. Karma is thought of as a kind of pollution that taints the soul with various colors. Based on its karma, a soul undergoes transmigration and reincarnation in various states of existence like heavens or hells or as humans or animals.

21. The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.
  2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
  3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. The tradesmen had to pay light duties at ferries and barriers. After paying the revenue they could go to and fro to barter their merchandise. The punishment for social offences according to the traveller

22. Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

Explanation: B. Guru Nanak Dev was born in 1469. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in 1526. When Babur took over and established the Mughal dynasty, Nanak was travelling to different parts of India and preaching Sikhism. Babur once met Guru Nanak during one of his travel.

23. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the

Explanation: C. Ilbert bill exempted British subjects from trial by Indian magistrates and in cases involving death or transportation they could only be tried by a high court. This proposal provoked furious protests by the Indians.

24. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for

Explanation: A. The Tebhaga movement is a peasant movement in the history of Bengal and India. It was a movement of the peasants who demanded two-third share of their produce for themselves and one-third share to the landlord.

25. Annie Besant was
  1. responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
  2. the founder of the Theosophical Society
  3. once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

Explanation: C. Annie Besant had formed and led the Home Rule Movement as she was influenced by the Irish Home Rule League. She also became the President of Indian National Congress in 1917. But she was not the founder of the Theosophical Society; rather she was the second President of the society. The founder was Henry Steel Olcott.

26. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because

Explanation: C. In November 1927, the British govt. appointed the Indian statutory commission, known popularly after the name of its chairman as the Simon Commission. All the members of the commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted with chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of Indians from the commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion was that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for Self- government.

27. Quit India Movement was launched in response to

Explanation: B. The British Govt. sent a delegation to India under Sir Stafford Cripps, to negotiate with the Indian National Congress a deal to obtain total cooperation during the war, in return of progressive devolution and distribution of power from the Crown and the Viceroy to an elected Indian Legislature. The talks failed, as they did not address the key demand of a time table of self government and of definition of the powers to be relinquished, essentially making an offer of limited dominion status that was wholly unacceptable to the Indian movement.

28. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

Explanation: B. Chaityas refer to the halls enclosing the stupas. Chaityas were probably constructed to hold large numbers of devotees for prayer. Viharas on the other hand are constructions built in ancient India in order to provide resting places for the wandering Buddhist monks.

29. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called 'Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

Explanation: A. The pose 'Tribhanga' is the favourite posture of Lord Krishna. We have often seen Lord Krishna standing in tribhanga posture before his cow 'Kamdhenu' or whenever he is playing his flute. He is often called Tribhana Murari.

30. Consider the following historical places:
  1. Ajanta Caves
  2. Lepakshi Temple
  3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

Explanation: B. Ajanta Caves have mural paintings in caves 1, 2, 16 and 17. Some of the paintings were commissioned by Harisena of Vakataka dynasty. The theme of the paintings was Jataka tales. Lepakshi Temple is renowned for being one of the best repositories of mural paintings of the Vijaynagar kings. Sanchi Stupa has many beautiful sculptures but not mural paintings.

31. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:
  1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
  2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
  3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Barbara rock cut caves are the oldest rock cut caves. They were originally made for the Ajivikas during the Mauryan period (322-185 BCE). The Ellora caves were built between 5th century and 10th century. There were 34 caves out of which 12 were Buddhist caves, 17 were Hindu caves and 5 were Jain caves. The proximity of the caves clearly demonstrates the religious harmony prevalent at that period of time.

32. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Atlas mountain ranges are situated in the north western part of Africa. They extend almost 2000 km. They pass through Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia.

33. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to

Explanation: D. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttion from season to season are due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis.

34. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion

Explanation: C. Out of all the water on Earth, Saline water in oceans, seas and saline groundwater make up about 97% of it. Only 2.5 - 2.75% is fresh water, including 1.75-2% frozen in glaciers, ice and snow, 0.5 - 0.75% as fresh groundwater and soil moisture and less than 0.01% of it as surface water in lakes, Swamps and rivers.

35. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Electromagnetic radiation
  2. Geothermal energy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Plate movements

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

Explanation: D. From electromagnetic radiation to revolution of the earth, everything is responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth. For example: Electromagnetic radiation brings changes in the field of microwaves, wavelengths of radio, UV rays, infra red rays, X rays and gamma rays. Geothermal energy is the heat received from the earth

36. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where

Explanation: C. The mixing of warm and cold current in the region where planktons are found is food for fishes. The temperature is just right for them to survive. The temperature is just right for the growth of fish food called planktons.

37. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/ characteristics of equatorial forests?
  1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
  2. Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. The canopy is the primary layer of the forest forming a roof over the two remaining layers. The densest of the biodiversity is found here along with a large variety of epiphytes.

38. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
  1. Thermal difference between land and water
  2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
  3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
  4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. The first statement is correct. One major factor affecting the distribution of the temperature of Earth is distribution of Land and Oceans. Since there is more land in Northern Hemisphere and more waters in Southern hemisphere and there is a big difference between the specific heat of land and water; the loss of heat from the continents is bigger than the oceans. The continents get heated faster and get cooled faster in comparison to the Oceans. This is the reason that the temperatures of the Oceans are moderate while that of continents is extreme. The moderating effect on temperature of the land due to proximity of the seas is called Maritime influence. The increasing effect on temperature of the land at interior of the continents is called Continental Influence.

39. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."

The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

Explanation: B. The central Asian steppes run through Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Mongolia. The climate here is harsh with dust storms, little to no rainfall and temperature ranging from

40. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
  2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
  3. Silent Valley: National Park : Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Through Corbett National Park Ramganga flows (not Ganga) which is a tributary of Ganges. Through Silent Valley National Park river Bhavani flows which is a tributary of Kaveri. Kaziranga and Manas are both national parks

41. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
  1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
  2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
  3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. 1 only.

42. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?
  1. High ash content
  2. Low sulphur content
  3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. Indian coal has high ash content and low calorific value. It has low sulphur and low phosphorous content but high ash fusion temperature.

43. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
  1. They are generally red in colour.
  2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
  3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
  4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: C. Laterite soil is rusty red in colour due to iron oxide present in it. In the lateritic soil cashews and tapiocas can be grown.

44. Consider the following statements:
  1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Dharwar rocks are non fossilliferous rather they are metalliferous. They bear out gold, iron ore, manganese mica, cobalt, chromium, copper, tungsten, lead, nickel, precious stones and budding stones. Kodarma is a store house of mica and Gondwana beds has coal and not natural gass.

45. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in

Explanation: D. Contour Bunding is one of the simple method of soil and water conservation. This technique is used at places where the land is sloppy. Due to slope, soil and nutrients erode fast which makes agriculture on this land very uneconomical. To adopt this technique the agriculture fields contours are marked and then the bunds are taken along the contours.

46. Consider the following crops:
  1. Cotton
  2. Groundnut
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

Explanation: C. Rice is the main kharif crop and groundnut and cotton are also the kharif crops wheat is a rabi.

47. Due to improper/ indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Mercury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. Electronic waste or E-waste has ferrous and nonferrous metals both. Non-ferrous metals like copper, aluminium, silver, gold, platinum, palladium etc. The presence of elements like lead, mercury, arsenic, cadmium, selenium and hexavalent chromium are classified as hazardous waste.

48. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
  1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
  2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species
  3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. A food chain is the sequence of who eats whom in a biological community to obtain nutrition. Sample:- Grassland Biome GRASS > GRASS HOPPER > RAT> SNAKE > HAWK.

49. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. Lion-tailed Macaques are found in the mountain forests scattered across three Indian states stated above. The lion-tailed Macaques are endangered as per IUCN.

50. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

Explanation: B. Ecological Niche is a term that describes the way of life of a species. Each species is thought to have a separate unique niche. The ecological niche describes how an organism or population responds to the distribution of resources and competitors. A niche is the sum of the habitat requirements that allow a species to persist and produce offspring.

51. Consider the following:
  1. Star tortoise
  2. Monitor lizard
  3. Pygmy hog
  4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

Explanation: A. Star tortoise is found in India in the dry and scrub forests. Pygmy Hog is an endangered species found in Assam. Only 150 animals are left. Monitor Lizard is found in India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan. Spider Monkey is the inhabitant of tropical forests of Central and South America.

52. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
  1. Arsenic
  2. Sorbitol
  3. Fluoride
  4. Formaldehyde

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. Drinking water in some parts of India has contaminants like Arsenic, Fluoride other than many other contaminants. The sources of Arsenic are run off from orchards. The sources of fluoride are erosion of natural deposits, discharge from fertilizers and aluminum factories.

53. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
  2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range
  3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is situated in Garo Hills in Meghalaya. Loktak Lake is in Manipur. Barail Range is in Assam. Though Namdapha National Park and Dafla Hill both are in Arunachal Pradesh, the two are separate entities.

54. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

Explanation: C. The trees cannot replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of water limits and fire.

55. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

Explanation: C. The productivity of Mangroves > grasslands > lakes > oceans.

56. Consider the following fauna of India:
  1. Gharial
  2. Leatherback turtle
  3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

Explanation: C. Gharial is critically endangered according to IUCN. Overhunting for skin and trophies, habitat loss due to construction of dams and barrages has been the reason for their decline. Leather back turtles are endangered due to human carelessness. Swamp deer occupies a place in the list of the endangered species of the world. Deforestation, draining of swamps and marshes for farming has led to the destruction of their natural habitat.

57. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
  1. Virus
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. Bacteria and Fungi both are known as decomposer organisms. Bacteria are important decomposers; they can break down any kind of organic matters. Fungi are primary decomposers, they not only decompose the surface organisms but they can also penetrate deep into the organic matters.

58. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for

Explanation: A. Deficit financing refers to the difference between expenditure and receipts. In public finance, it means the govt. is spending more than what it is earning. Deficit financing is a necessary evil in a welfare state as the states often fail to generate tax revenue which is sufficient enough to take care of the expenditure of the state. The basic intention behind deficit financing is to provide the necessary impetus to economic growth by artificial means.

59. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to

Explanation: D. Priority sector lending constitutes the lending to

60. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?

Explanation: B. In India's foreign exchange reserve, it includes foreign currency deposits, bonds, gold reserves, SDRs and IMF reserve position. Foreign exchange reserves are an important part of the international investment position of a country.

61. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the

Explanation: D. National Income is the money value of all the final goods and services produced by a country during a period of one year. National Income consists of a collection of different types of goods and services of different types.

62. Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
  1. Foreign Loans
  2. Foreign Direct Investment
  3. Private Remittances
  4. Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. Capital Account comprises of Foreign loans, Foreign Direct Investment and Portfolio Investment. Capital Account is the net result of public and private international investments flowing in and out of a country. Portfolio investment is the buying of shares and bonds. FDI is the investments by foreigners in a country or the citizens investing in foreign countries.

63. In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to

Explanation: C. It is an activity by a central bank (RBI) to buy or sell government securities. The aim of open market operations is to manipulate the short term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and indirectly control the total money supply.

64. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. The National Development Council includes the Prime Minister, Union ministers, Chief ministers of all states, administrative heads of the Union Territories and members of the planning commission.

65. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?

Explanation: A. To reap the benefits of demographic dividend, skills have to be developed because a relatively larger portion of population fall under the category of productive labour force when there is a demographic dividend.

66. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
  1. an increase in the money supply
  2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
  3. an increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. General Price rise may be caused by an increase in the money supply as the real value of the money reduces. The higher aggregate price level will reduce the purchasing power subsequently reducing the consumer spending. Effective demand also increases when there is less purchasing power due to inflation.

67. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

Explanation: D. Extremely high rates of inflation are generally associated with high rates of money growth. It is often the result of financing large deficits by printing money

68. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be

Explanation: C. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be an increase in the rate of interest and vice-versa.

69. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if

Explanation: C. Country's economic growth is reflected through capital formation, which in turn encourages private enterprises in enhancing the growth of a country's economy.

70. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of

Explanation: C. The Balance of Payments (BoPs) accounts are an accounting record of all monetary transactions between country and the rest of the world. These transactions include payment for the country's exports and imports of goods, services, financial capitals and financial transfers. The balance of payments can show if a country has a deficit or surplus.

71. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

Explanation: D. Thermal power plants use water to turn into steam (heat energy) to generate electricity (electrical energy).

72. Disguised unemployment generally means

Explanation: C. Disguised unemployment is a situation when people do not have productive full-time employment, but are not counted in the official unemployment statistics.

73. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
  1. liquidity of assets
  2. branch expansion
  3. merger of banks
  4. winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. The Reserve Bank of India is the main monetary authority of the country and beside that, in its capacity as the central bank, acts as the bank of the national and state governments.

74. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the

Explanation: D. A tight monetary policy is a course of action undertaken by Central bank to constrict spending in an economy, or to curb inflation when it is rising too fast. The increased bank rate increases the cost of borrowing and effectively reduces its attractiveness.

75. Which of the following grants / grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: C. Land development bank started financing long term loan for more significant rural development activities like rural and cottage industries, rural artisans etc. The main purpose of RRB's is to mobilize financial resources from rural / semi-urban areas and grant loans and advances mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers and rural artisans. NABARD does not give "direct" credit assistance. It provides credit Via intermediaries such as Microfinance companies, Cooperative society, RRB.

76. Consider the following statements:
  1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
  2. Inflation benefits the bondholders

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Those who benefit from higher inflation are debtors and those who suffer from it are creditors. If one has substantial debt, each rupee one has to repay would be worth less than when it was borrowed. In this way, one pays back less in real terms.

77. Consider the following liquid assets:
  1. Demand deposits with the banks
  2. Time deposits with the banks
  3. Saving deposits with the banks
  4. Currency

The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is

Explanation: D. Currency/cash is the most liquid, then the demand deposits (current accounts), then the saving deposits with bank and finally the least liquid is the time deposits with the bank (fixed deposits).

78. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

Explanation: C. Ball bearings are used to reduce friction and friction is directly proportional to effective surface area. So if effective surface area is reduced then friction will also reduce.

79. Consider the following phenomena:
  1. Size of the sun at dusk.
  2. Colour of the sun at dawn
  3. Moon being visible at dawn
  4. Twinkle of stars in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

Explanation: C. Size of the Sun at dusk is an optical illusion because of atmospheric refraction. Colour of the sun appears yellow due to scattering whereas pure sunlight is white in colour. Twinkling of stars is an optical illusion. Air whirlpools make the stars twinkle.

80. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
  1. Dispersion
  2. Refraction
  3. Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Explanation: D. Formation of rainbow involves all dispersian, refraction and internal reflection.

81. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
  1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
  2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
  3. violent upward movement of air and water particles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. Thunderstorms result from the rapid upward movement of warm, moist air. They can occur inside warm, moist air masses and at fronts. As the warm, moist air moves upward, it cools, condenses, and forms cumulonimbus clouds that can reach heights of over 20 km (12.45 miles). The thunderstorms are associated with the cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds normally form on warm sunny days but they can also be found on cold front. But this question is asking about the Thunder i.e. the sound produced. The lightning generates between 100 million and 1 billion volts of electricity and can heat the air to around 50K

82. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Explanation: A. Gravity is the feeble force among the four.

83. With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
  1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
  2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
  3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: C. Bagasse is often used as a primary fuel source as it produces sufficient heat energy. Molasses can be used for the production of Ethanol. Ethanol is produced by the age old technique of fermentation of cereals, grams, molasses and other materials with high starch contents. Molasses is an inexpensive and readily available raw material. Molasses cannot be used as a synthetic fertilizer as molasses contain calcium, magnesium and Iron where as synthetic fertilizers are comprised of NPK i.e. Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Potassium.

84. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

Explanation: D. Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide react with molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.

85. Consider the following organisms:
  1. Agaricus
  2. Nostoc
  3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer / biofertilizers?

Explanation: B. Nostoc fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as inoculations for paddy crop.

86. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

Explanation: C. Fruits respire. They give out ethylene which helps in ripening. When fruits are kept in cold storage the rate of ethylene production can be controlled and shelf life of fruits can be increased.

87. Many transplanted seedling do not grow because

Explanation: C. During a transplant the fine roots are destroyed due to the jostling during the uprooting process. These root hairs come under a shock. The plant which has been transplanted either takes time to readjust to the new soil or dries up and dies due to the root hair loss.

88. Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
  1. Hard and waxy leaves
  2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
  3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. To inhibit water loss or to conserve water most of the desert species have waxy leaves that keep them water proof when stomata are closed. Water is further conserved by reducing surface area so most succulents have few leaves or no leaves. Some desert plants have thorns instead of leaves. Thorns do not let the water go out.

89. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
  1. resist drought and increase absorptive area
  2. tolerate extremes of pH
  3. resist disease infestation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. Mycorrhizal associations play vital role in plant nutrition. They greatly increase the efficiency of nutrient and water uptake; enhance resistance to pathogens, and buffer plant species against several environmental stresses and drought resistance. Mycorrhizal also improve plant growth and survival in soils contaminated by heavy metals.

90. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as afla toxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Afla toxins are produced by

Explanation: C. Afla toxins are produced by many species of Aspergillus, a fungus. Aspergillus Flavus and Aspergillus Parasiticus are weedy moulds that grow on a large number of substrates, in particular under high moisture conditions.

91. Which of the following adds / add nitrogen to the soil?
  1. Excretion of urea by animals
  2. Burning of coal by man
  3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: C. Excretion of urea by animals adds nitrogen to the soil, as urea is the main nitrogen containing substance in the urine of mammals, therefore urea is widely used in fertilizers as the convenient source of nitrogen. Death of vegetation adds up in soil organic matters including humus. As organic matters decompose inorganic nitrogen is released into the soil.

92. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
  1. Chikungunya
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: B. Body piercing or getting one's body tattooed may cost one a huge price- Infection of Hepatitis B and C virus is absolutely possible. The needle used in the act may just be infected with the said virus causing liver disease, which in its ultimate stage often turns cancerous. This is deemed to happen if the needle is not properly sterilized.

93. Consider the following minerals:
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?

Explanation: C. Calcium is the most common and abundant mineral in the body. It is important for healthy bones and teeth, helps muscle relax and contract, important in nerve functioning, blood clotting etc. Sodium is needed for proper fluid balance, nerve transmission and muscle contraction.

94. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
  1. across different species of plants
  2. from animals to plants
  3. from microorganisms to higher organisms

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: D. Recombinant DNA are DNA sequences, which result from bringing genetic material forms different sources. The genes can be transferred between any species, that is across different species of plants, from animals to plants and from microorganisms to higher organisms

95. Consider the following animals:
  1. Sea cow
  2. Sea horse
  3. Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

Explanation: B. Sea cow is a mammal. It is a herbivore and it grows up to 9 meters. It looks like a large seal. Sea horse is a fish not a mammal. Sea lion is a mammal. It is a carnivore. It is also known as eared seal.

96. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
  2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
  3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. Viruses have no metabolic enzymes and cannot generate their own energy. Viruses require a growth medium containing living cell therefore cannot be cultured in any synthetic medium. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another not only by biological vectors but also by mechanical vectors. Mechanical vector like an arthropod vector which transmits an infective organism from one host to another but it is not essential to the life of cycle of the parasite.

97. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
  2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
  3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
  4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Limbu tribe is from Sikkim and Dongaria Kondh tribe is from Odisha ( Karbi is from Assam and Bonda is in Odisha).

98. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance / importances of discovering this particle?
  1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
  2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
  3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation: A. The discovery of Higgs boson is important because it explains why sub atomic particles have mass. According to the scientists, Higgs boson is the only particle which explains how the basic building blocks of matter interact.

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