1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Explanation: B. Organizing village Panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas are the Gandhian principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Explanation: B. Rajyasabha can pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws in the state list and to create one or more All India Services. This is a special power that has been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the constitution.

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: D. The items DPSP, Rural and Urban Local Bodies, 6th Schedule, 7th Schedule provide provision for education.

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: C. CAG gives three audit reports to president which are laid by the president before both the houses of the parliament. Subsequently the Public Accounts committee examines them and reports its findings to the parliament.

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. All the statements except 2 regarding the Fundamental Duties of citizens are correct.

Explanation: C. Distribution of power between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Government of India Act. 1935

Explanation: A. Adjournment motion: It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house. It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha cannot introduce Adjournment Motion. The discussion on adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. None of the above statements are correct. Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are represented in the Rajya Sabha. It is not within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the Supreme Court and High Court which look into the disputes. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Explanation: B. If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his / her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is elected by the Lok- Sabha from amongst its Members. Usually the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok-Sabha.

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: C. Inclusive governance Means that the benefit of governance Should reach the down trodden and to the last corner of the country.The Provisions given in option 2, 3 and 4 leads to the inclusive governance. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial companies to do banking is not directly linked to the inclusive governance.

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Only 2nd and 3rd are correct statements.

Explanation: A. Article 75(I) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without his\her being a member of either House of the Parliament at the time of appointment. However he/she has to become a Member of either house of parliament within Six Months from the date of his/her appointment as prime-minister.

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: A. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary Machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills of financial bills only and not to Money bills or constitutional amendment bills.

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. In case of death of a consumer his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his /her behalf.

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. Given 1st, 3rd and 4th statements are correct

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Both Buddhism and Jainism denied the authority of the Vedas and the efficacy of Rituals.

Explanation: C. Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are three main styles of Indian temple architecture.

Explanation: B. The earth witness Buddha is one of the most common iconic images of Buddhism. It depicts the Buddha sitting in meditation with his left hand, palm upright, in his lap; and his right hand touching the earth. This represents the moment of the Buddha's enlightenment.

Explanation: C. The early Vedic Aryans indulged in Image Worship and Yajnas.

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.

1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. All statements are correct.

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Ryotwari settlement, the rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government and the Government gave pattas to the Ryots.

1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Statements 1 & 2 are correct.

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies.

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

Explanation: D. D is correct option.

Explanation: D. D is correct option.

Explanation: B. Because Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. The parties established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar were - All India Scheduled Castes Federation and the Independent Labour Party.

Explanation: C. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, against Ramsay Macdonald Announcement of the Communal Award.

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. He exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Only 1st statement is correct.

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. 1st and 3rd are correct.

Explanation: B. The act had provisions of imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial.

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Dhrupad is primarily a spiritual and devotional music and it uses Sanskrit syllables from mantras.

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Only statement 1, is correct.

1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. The cosmic microwave background (CMB) is the thermal radiation left over from the "Big Bang". The CMB is well explained as radiation left over from an early stage in the development of the universe and its discovery is considered a landmarks test of the Big Bang model of the universe. Red shift and Blueshift describes how light changes as objects in space (such as stars or galaxies) move closer or farther away from us. The concept is key to charting the universe's expansion.

1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

Explanation: B. Rotation of the Earth, Air pressure and wind, Density of ocean water. Revolution has no impact on ocean currents.

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth's surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. Atmosphere is heated by infrared radiation, Moisture is more in lower atmosphere. In the upper atmosphere Air is less dense which hold less heat thus temperature is low.

Explanation: D. Savannah covers approximately 20% of the Earth's land area. The largest area of Savannah is in Africa. The tropical Savannah region has a definite dry and wet season. Savannah grasslands are much richer in humus than the equatorial forests.

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

Explanation: A. Arunachal Pradesh.

1. The country's total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The countries total geographical area under the category of wetlands is more in Gujarat as compared to other states. India has 60% of in land wetland out of total wetland.

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

Explanation: D. All statements are correct.

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both statements are correct.

Explanation: C. Mixed farming refer to rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

Explanation: D. All these crops are leguminous crop (Pulses crops), and have the capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic nitrogen fixation.

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rained crop/crops?

Explanation: D. All of them are predominantly rain fed crops.

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. All the statements are correct.

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. Deficit financing refers to the difference between expenditure and receipts. In public finance, it means the govt. is spending more than what it is earning. Deficit financing is a necessary evil in a welfare state as the states often fail to generate tax revenue which is sufficient enough to take care of the expenditure of the state. The basic intention behind deficit financing is to provide the necessary impetus to economic growth by artificial means.

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and interdepartmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. DRDA has traditionally been the principal organ at the district level to oversee the implementation of anti-poverty programmes of the Ministry of Rural Development. It does not acts as Panchayati Raj Institutions.

1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level.

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. The 13th finance commission has an elaborate design for the GST. Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect. Report basically discusses the improved implementation of the existing schemes. The third statement is correct. The report in its para 10.44 mentions: "Taking into account the demand of local bodies that they be allowed to benefit from the buoyancy of central taxes and the constitutional design of supplementing the resources of Panchayats and municipalities through grants-in-aid, we recommend that local bodies be transferred a percentage of the divisible pool of taxes cover and above the share of the states, as stipulated by us, after converting this share to grant-in-aid under Article 275."

1. Low birthrate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :

Explanation: C. Demographic Transition is the transition from high birth and death rates to lower birth and death rates as a country or region develops from a preindustrial to an industrialized economic System.

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Capital gain is an increase in the value of a capital asset (investment or real estate) that gives it a higher worth than the purchase price. The gain is the difference between a higher selling price and a lower purchase price. The increase in the sales of a product does not mean increase the selling price of the product.

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. C is correct option.

1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. A Foreign direct investment (FDI) involves establishing a direct business interest in a foreign country, such as buying or establishing a manufacturing business, while foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) refers to investing in financial assets such as stocks or bonds in a foreign country. Hence, FDI does not involve portfolio Investment.

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of 'single window clearance'
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. All the three initiative (s) mentioned in the question are the part of National Manufacturing Policy. The objective of the National Manufacturing policy is to boost the country

1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. The Eight core industries have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the index of Industrial Production (IIP). They are as follows: Coal, crude oil, Natural Gas, Petroleum Refinery Products, fertilizers, steel (Alloy + Non - Alloy), Cement and Electricity.

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. 2nd and 3rd are correct statements.

Explanation: C. The basic aim of Lead Bank scheme is that the bank should adopt particular districts for intensive development by offering loans and banking services.

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. All are correct. Sea buckthorn is a medicinal plant which has health-promoting properties. It can play a crucial role in preventing soil erosion and help nitrogen fix option in cold and desert areas.

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Explanation: C. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) checks the biopiracy and protects the indigeneous and traditional genetic resources. Intellectual property Rights related to genetic biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.

1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243 (A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with the Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Art. 21.

1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of wastewater.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, then the part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste water and the water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: C. The combustible gas produced during gasification process includes carbon monoxide hydrogen, carbon dioxide and possibly hydrocarbons like methane (CH4).

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phyto-planktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Explanation: D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation: D. Carbon dioxide absorbs the Infrared part of Solar Radiation.

1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

Explanation: B. Bandipur, Manas and Sunderbans are declared Tiger Reserves.

Explanation: B. In national parks, local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass available in the area.

Explanation: A. Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass, are endangered species.

Explanation: C. Supporting services of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment are necessary for production of all other ecosystem services including soil formation, nutrient cycling, photo synthesis to name a few.

Explanation: A. Oryx has adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: A. Except promotion of vegetarianism all other acts are threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area.

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

Explanation: C. All the given agricultural practices help in carbon sequestration.

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: A. If phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason then (i) The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected. (ii) The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected as the fishes live on them.

Explanation: B. A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle.

1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

Explanation: B. Cheetah is not naturally found in India.

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation: A. Earth's magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Codes:

Explanation: B. Smelting units and paints are the source of the lead poisoning.

1. In the production of plastic foams
2. In the production of tubeless tyres
3. In cleaning certain electronic components
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Chlorofluorocarbons are used in the production of plastic foams, in cleaning electronic components and as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.

1. It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Ultraviolet radiation inactivates / kills harmful micro organisms in water only.

1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: C. Except 3rd, all the statements are correct.

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

Explanation: D. All of them are employed as Bio-pesticides.

Explanation: B. Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen.

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

Explanation: D. All of them are pollinating agents.

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the Social Security coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?

Explanation: D. D is correct option.

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. It is based on renewable resources like sugar, molasses, rice, corn and potato starches.

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: C. Graphene is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conduction. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far. It can be used for conducting electrodes required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. Conducting the delivery of baby is not the work of ASHA.

1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2. By strengthening 'self-help groups' and providing skill development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: B. B is correct option.

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The endeavour of Janani Suraksha Yojana programme are: (i) to promote institutional deliveries (ii) to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery.

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Thorium fuel generates no new bomb-usable material in the waste profile; the waste consists of the Radio isotope Uranium-233, or U233, which is virtually impossible to weaponize/ Thorium fuel will generate more energy per unit of mass than uranium fuel by a factor of approximately 30. Thorium is four times more abundant in nature than uranium, and is widely distributed throughout the Earth's crust. All statements in this question are correct.

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: B. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies also can be used for screening new drugs.

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Explanation: B. 2nd and 3rd statements are correct hence the option (B) is right.