1. Constitution of district planning committees.
2. State election commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of state finance commission.

State the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. District planning committee has been provided by Article 243 ZD under Constitution of India, which was inserted by 74th Constitution Amendment Act and not by 73rd amendment act. So, first tricky statement was incorrect. Rest 2 statements are correct and correct option is C.

Explanation: B. Parliament shall have power to authorise by law the withdrawal of moneys from the Consolidated Fund of India for the purposes for which the said grants are made.

Explanation: C. Consolidated Fund of India.

Explanation: D. If a policy statement like Annual Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha, then it is equivalent to losing vote of confidence of the ruling party or it is same as passing of no-confidence motion. In this case, the government i.e. Prime Minister should resign.

Explanation: A. Option A is not a fundamental duty.

Explanation: D. The finance commission shall make recommendations as to the following matters namely: I. The distribution between the union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds; II. The principles which should govern the garnts-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to be paid to the states which are in need of assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their revenues under Article 275 of the Constitution for purposes other than those specified in the provisions to clause (1) of that article; III. The measures needed to augment the consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the by the Finance Commission of the state.

1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Statement 3 is not correct as it is not the sole authority for implementing government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. For example, in Delhi, there are various other agencies as well for implementing government sponsored schemes such as New Delhi Municipal Corporation, Delhi Development Authority.

1. The provision of a "vote-on-account" is used by a regular government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker government.
2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in government is budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Every year the government presents the annual budget for the next financial year. However, if it is an election year the government would present a vote on account or interim budget. During an election year it is not practical for the ruling government or for the new government taking charge after the elections to prepare or debate on the full budget and pass it before the new financial year begins.

1. Right to education.
2. Right to equal access to public service.
3. Right to food.

Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of Human Rights"?

Explanation: D. With reference to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights: Article 25 says everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the health and well-being of himself and of his family, including food, clothing, housing and medical care and necessary social services, and the right to security in the event of unemployment, sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his control. Article 21(2) says

Explanation: B. Jain Doctrine is "established" upon an undying universal truth. It was Rishabh deV, who is first thought to realize the truth and achieve Kevalya Gyana.

1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Mehrgarh cotton which is the earliest example of Cotton cultivation in the old world , older than the Peruvians. The cloth was made, and even dyed, so statement 2 is correct. The first statement is also correct.

1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Rita refers to regulation order by nature and was related to the conduct of the Vedic Gods and Humans, somewhere related to the moral and physical law. Statement 2 is correct. Rita was later replaced bny Dharma and was a more sophisticated form of principles of law. As per Chanakya, Dharma was the promotion of one's own security, happiness as well as the social order. Both the statements are correct.

Explanation: D. Option D is the suitable answer in this case. The option C of this question is based upon the "Trade Secret" of India when its maritime trade history had just begun and has been narrated and documented by the Mediterranean writers. They have written that Indians had known the art of direct sailing between South India and the Coasts of South Africa, Arabia, but the Indian kept it as a Trade secret. It is very likely that the seafaring Indians took advantage of the monsoon winds in the navigation of the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea, Strabo says, these people knew something which we (Greeks) don

Explanation: D. the reforms of Cornwallis had increased the litigation and the main reason for this was the Court Fee was removed and now everybody could drag anybody to courts. The extension to right of appeal was also one of the reasons. Court fees were abolished by Cornwallis. Lawyers were to prescribe their fees. Ordinary people could sue the Government servants (Indians) if they committed mistakes. Inhuman punishments such as cutting limbs, cutting nose and ears were abolished. These are some of the reasons that led to increased litigation. The reasons given in the options don

Explanation: A. The Quit India Movement was basically promoted a nonviolent and non-cooperative movement but it was not a nonviolent. There were various events in which Police station, Railway Stations, Railway Lines and Post Offices were burnt and destroyed.

1. Funds used to support the India office in London.
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. During the period of colonial rule in India, the drain of wealth took place through various forms, main among them were: Home Charges, Civil and Military charges, Interest on Foreign Capital Investments.

1. The administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The administration proposed to introduce permanent settlement in Gujarat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Option A is correct answer.

Explanation: A. On 28 December 1885, the Indian National Congress was founded at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay, with 72 delegates in attendance. A O Hume assumed office as the General Secretary. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee of Calcutta was elected President. The additional British Members were William Wedderburn and Justice John Jardine. All others were the Hindus from Calcutta and Madras Presidency. Wedderburn had entered the parliament as a liberal member in 1893 and had sought to voice India

Explanation: B. The statement A is incorrect because from Ruskin

Explanation: A. Secret Radio was run by Usha Mehta.

1. Complete independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the constitution.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Complete Independence was not recommended by the Nehru Report.

Explanation: B. Arunachal Pradesh is considered to be the "nature's treasure trove" and home to orchids, known for their exquisitely beautiful blooms, from one of the dominant taxa with more than six hundred species, occurring in varying elevations and climatic conditional throughout the state.

1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the kra isthmus between the gulf of Siam and Andaman sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Opening a new canal in Kra Isthmus can reduce the navigation time and distance. It

Explanation: B. Brahamputra originates neat Mt. Kailas and is known to take a U turn near Mount Namcha Barwa. This U turn is also known as Great Bend. The U Turn is because of the 180

1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.

Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics ?

Explanation: B. The North of Gujarat shares its climate with Rajasthan and can be termed as semi-arid and arid type of climate. In agriculture, cash crop is a crop which grown for profit. Sugarcane, cotton, tobacco, oilseeds and peanuts are profitable cash crops. Cash crops are characteristic of the states, agricultural economy.

1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian ocean whereas EI Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial pacific ocean.
2. EI Nino has adverse effect on southwest monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. La Nina is a coupled ocean atmosphere phenomenon that is the countrrpart of El-Nino as part of the broader El Nio-Southern Oscillation climate pattern. During a period of La-Nina, the sea surface temperature across the equatorial Eastern central pacific ocean will be lower than normal by 3-50C. Some of weather effects of La Nina include abnormally heavy monsoons in India and Southeast Asia, cool and wet winter weather in Southeastern Africa, Wet weather in eastern Australia, cold winter in western Canada and northwestern United States, winter drought in the Southern United States, warm and wet weather in northeastern United States, and an extremely wet winter in Southwestern Canada and north-western USA.

1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. The first statement is correct because with Micro irrigation, loss of nutrients can be reduced. The second statement is incorrect. The third statement is correct, because Micro irrigation has evolved from the sub-irrigation where irrigation water is supplied to the plant by "raising the water table" up to the root zone.

Explanation: B. Unless the salts and minerals are washed down into the groundwater, the Sodium and other ions are absorbed by the colloidal clay particles. It leads to the deflocculating of the particles and the soil becomes structure less and impermeable to water.

1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The higher speed and greater persistence of the westerlies in the Southern Hemisphere are caused by the difference in the atmospheric pressure patterns as well as its variation from that of the Northern hemisphere. The landmass in the southern hemisphere is comparatively less and average annual pressure decreases much more rapidly on the pole ward side of the high pressure belt. Statement 1 is correct.

1. It is located in the subtropical high pressure cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

Explanation: A. The Eurasian Belt is related to cold currents not warm current, so statement 2 is incorrect.

1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

Explanation: B. Reason is the low air density that reduces parasitic drag on the airframe. It also allows them to stay above any hard weather (extreme turbulence). Air flow in the stratosphere is much lesser turbulent than in the troposphere and this is the reason that jet aircraft like to cruise at stratospheric altitudes for, the flight is less "bumpy." So statement 2 is correct. Majority of clouds form in the Earth

1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is wrong, ionosphere contains charged particles due to which electromagnetic radio waves gets reflected and communication becomes possible. Ozone is found mainly in stratosphere and in traces in troposphere. Its main function is absorption of UV rays. While the ions give the ionosphere its name, it is the free electrons that effect the radio waves and radio communications. Also Radio waves have the longest wave length in the EM spectrum.

1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bioasphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
2. Biosphalt can be made from nonrenewable resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
4. It is ecofriendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.

Which the correct answer using the codes given below?

Explanation: B. Bioasphalt is made from sources like sugar, molasses and rice, corn and potato starches. Bioaphalt when proved will become a petrol alternative fuel since the non-renewable fuels like petrol, diesel, crude oil cause heat, climate changes, global warming, environmental pollution and respiratory diseases too. Hence researchers are in full swing to save the planet through the renewable non-petroleum alternatives. Hence, only option 2 is incorrect, as bioasphalt can also be made from renewable resources.

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: D. Microbial fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy by the catalytic reaction of microorganisms. The major substrates that have been tried include various kinds of artificial and real wastewaters and lignocellulosic biomass, yet the Electricity generation with anodic sulfide oxidation has been shown, Inorganic and other substrates have been used and is a matter of research.

Explanation: B. The nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which catalyzes the photochemical destruction of ozone. Correct option is B.

Explanation: A. Correct answer is Bhitarkanika and the rivers are Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.

Explanation: D. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations environment programs. The mechanism of Carbon credit was formalized in the Kyoto Protocol.

Explanation: B. Indian Wild Ass.

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Threat perception

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

Explanation: C. To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5 percent of the world

1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Much of the carbon dioxide produced by humans does not stay in the atmosphere but is stored in the oceans or on land in plants and soils. By far the largest carbon store on earth is in sediments, both on land and in the oceans, and it is held mainly as calcium carbonate. Carbon dioxide is also taken up by phytoplankton in photosynthesis and converted into plant material. Land plants and marine phytoplankton take up about the same amounts of carbon dioxide as each other but marine phytoplankton grow much faster than land plants.

Explanation: A. Most soils found under the tropical rainforests are deficient in nutrients. This is because of the warm and humid climate. There is a high temperature and and this high temperature leads to decompostion of the organic material as well as the inorganic parent material of the soil. There are frequent rains and these rains leach the decomposing material off the soil , out of the root zone quickly. So, the result is that the Tropical rain Forests have adapted themselves and quickly take up the nutrients and most nutrients in the tropical rain forests is stored in the vegetation.

Explanation: B. India is rich in biodiversity because of its diverse physiography and climatic conditions falls in the confluence of three major bio-geographic realms, the Indo-Malayan, Eurasian and Afro-tropical and is one of the 12 mega biodiversity countries of the world.

1. Import and export (control) act, 1947.
2. Mining, and mineral development (regulation) act, 1957.
3. Customs act, 1962.
4. Indian forest act, 1927.

Which of the above acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?

Explanation: C. It must be noted that the Imports and Exports (Control) Act, 1947 and the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Ordinance, 1992 (Ord. 11 of 1992) got repealed with the enactment of Foreign Trade (Development And Regulation) Act, 1992. But still the answer remains the same because the new act also has "bearing" on biodiversity conservation.

1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Runoff from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation: D. Upwelling , formation of mud banks, nutrient discharges from estuaries and run-off from the land during southwest and northeast monsoons cause some algae blooms in coastal waters.

1. Photosynthesis.
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action

Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on earth?

Explanation: C. Photosynthesis and respiration are essentially the opposite of one one another. Photosynthesis removes CO2 from the atmosphere and replaces it with O2. Respiaration takes O2 from the atmosphere and replaces it with CO2. The combustion of fossil fuels mainly adds carbon dioxide to air, some of it is also released during natural processes, such as volcanic eruptions.

1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. Biological Diversity helps in all of them including Soil formation.

Explanation: A. It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.

Explanation: B. Zoos and botanical gardens are the most conventional methods of ex-situ conservation, rest all options are natural habitats so are of in situ conservation.

Explanation: D. Mangroves prevent coastal erosion, and act as a barrier against typhoons, cyclones, hurricanes, and tsunamis, helping to minimize damage done to property and life. Mangrove tree species that inhabit lower tidal zones can block or buffer wave action with their stems, which can measure high and several metres in circumference. The trees both shield the land from wind and trap sediment in their roots, maintaining a shallow slope on the seabed that absorbs the energy of tidal surges.

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. The Red Data Book is the state document established for documenting rare and endangered species of animals, plants as well as some local sub-species that exist within the territory of the state or country.

Explanation: C. Both the given statements are correct. Hence the option is C.

1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation offood grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. There are four main reasons underlying food inflation in India. The immediate reason for the spurt in the prices of specific food items, like onions today or earlier in the case of sugar and pulses, is hoarding. Trader cartels, encouraged by an inept government, are mainly responsible for this. Assured of inaction, hoarders are creating artificial shortages and fleecing people from time to time. Secondly, the growing penetration of big corporate in the food economy, international trade in food items and speculative futures trading in agricultural commodities has weakened the government

Explanation: A. The income was from "tourism" and that is an invisible export.

Explanation: B. Fiscal stimulus means the redusction of taxes or an increase aggregate demand and therefore the level of economic activity in the short run.

1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.

Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

Explanation: A. The definition of BOP at current account is as follows: Exports-Imports = Trade Balance (1) Invisible Payments

Explanation: C. Base effect is almost an ubiquitous term which says that the previous data affects the calculation of the current data.

Explanation: D. A value Added Tax is a form of consumption tax. The state government through taxation departments, are carrying out the responsibility of levying and collecting VAT in the respective states. While, the central government is playing the role of a facilitator for the successful implementation of VAT.

Explanation: D. Closed economies take themselves as self sufficient and neither import nor export takes place.

Explanation: D. The sketch of dialectical materialism given by Karl Marx explains that Dialectical principle is of universal application and all the development is "struggle of opposites" or "conflict of opposites".

Explanation: B. FDI only targets a specific enterprise. It aims to increase the enterprises capacity or productivity or change its management control. The FII investment flows only into the secondary market. It helps in increasing capital availability in general rather than enhancing the capital of a specific enterprise. The FDI is considered to be more stable than FII. FDI not only brings in capital but also helps in good governance practices and better management skills and even technology transfer.

1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. Given all the above statements are correct. Hence option D is correct.

1. Credit facilities.
2. Savings faculties.
3. Insurance facilities.
4. Fund transfer faculties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given the lists?

Explanation: D. Microfinance is a movement whose object is "a world in which as many poor and near-poor households as possible have permanent access to an appropriate range of high quality financial services, including not just credit but also savings, insurance, and fund transfers.

1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the east Asian regional player in the east Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of cold war.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in southeast and east Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. India's Look East policy is an attempt to forge closer and deeper economic integration with its eastern neighbours. India seeks to create and expand regional markets for trade, investment and industrial development. It also began strategic and military cooperation with nations concerned by the expansion of China

Explanation: C. IMF is an intergovernmental organization that oversees the global financial system by taking part in the macroeconomic policies of its established members, in particular those with an impact on exchange rate and the balance of payments. Its objectives are to stabilize international exchange rates and facilitate development through the influence of neoliberal economic policies in other countries as a condition of loans, debt relief and aid.

1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of subprime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. In India, it was SBI which pioneered the Teaser loans. They are though to be some kind of sub prime lending and so statement 1 is correct. RBI, as a step to discourage teaser loans, asked banks to make provision of 2 per cent of outstanding portfolio for such loans with immediate effect. By December 2010, only SBI was offering these loans, ICICI and other banks had withdrawn it. Statement 2 is arbitrary and is NOT correct. It has nothing to do with the experience of the entrepreneurs? they are available for home loans as well. RBI had observed that many banks, at the time of initial loan appraisal, do not consider the repaying capacity of a borrower at normal lending rates, and that was the major issue.

1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Growth rate of GDP during recession years (2007-09) has decreased. Growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the same period.

Explanation: A. Among organized credit disbursement to agriculture commercial banks play vital role with a share of about 75% where as cooperative sector and RRBs contribute 15% and 10% respectively.

1. The government intends to use the revenue earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
2. The government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.

Which the statement given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Both the given statements are NOT correct.

Explanation: B. Economic growth is coupled with inflation and the correct option is B.

Explanation: A. Low bank Rate means more liquidity. The correct option is A.

Explanation: B. The demographic dividend is a rise in the rate of economic growth due to a rising share of working age people (15-64) in a population.

1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household. The age group is 18-59 years so reject statement 2. The scheme talks about the free add-on scholarship benefit for the children (maximum two) at the rate of Rs. 100/per month studying between 9th to I2th Standard.

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The president of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the prime minister

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Article 30(1) in the constitution of India 1949: All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. According to Prime Minister

1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government- run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Disable students come under the Right to Education and RTE Act provides for free and compulsory education to

Explanation: D. All adult members of the household who registered can apply for work.

Explanation: D. The first option is rejected because it used the term

1. Promoting Self-Help Groups.
2. Promoting Micro Small and Medium Enterprises.
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. The concept of the inclusive growth is based on both economic and social empowerment of ordinary and under privileged individuals. Thus all the statements are correct.

1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Human Genome Project is not at all limited to only genetic diseases. There are some 30K genes and the genome sequence would provide great help to build the tools to conquer diseases. Here we must note that all diseases have a genetic component, whether inherited (genetic) or resulting from the body

1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.

Which of the following statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: D. Microbial fuel cells transform organic wastes directly into electricity through microbially catalyzed electrochemical reactions.

1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. A type of trans fat occurs naturally in the milk and body fat of ruminants (such as cattle and sheep) at a level of 2

Explanation: A. The blood group of the parents are AB and O; the biological child

Explanation: C. Oxidation reactions can produce free radicals. In turn, these radicals can start chain reactions. When the chain reaction occurs in a cell, it can cause damage or death. When the chain reaction occurs in a purified monomer, it produces a polymer resin, such as a plastic, a synthetic fibre, or an oil paint film. Antioxidants terminate these chain reactions by removing free radical intermediates, and inhibit other oxidation reactions. They do this by being oxidized themselves, so antioxidants are often reducing agents such as thiols, ascorbic acid, orpolyphenols.

Explanation: A. Bt Brinjal is a transgenic brinjal created by inserting a gene cry1Ac from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis into Brinjal. This is said to give the Brinjal plant resistance against lepidopteran insects like the Brinjal Fruit and Shoot Borer Leucinodes orbonalis and Fruit Borer Helicoverpa armigera.

Explanation: B. Phloem layer of tissue just below the bark is responsible for carrying food from leave to roots.

1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular.
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the earth's equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: A. A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary Earth Orbit - GEO) is a geosynchronous orbit directly above the Earth's equator (0

Explanation: D. An artificial satellite moving round the Earth in a circular orbit possesses an acceleration which is "constant" in magnitude but "changing in direction". An artificial satellite revolves round the earth under Centripetal Acceleration. By the launch rocket, immediately before the satellite is established in the predetermined orbit, the speed given to it is 30, 000 km/hr. The speed must be great enough so gravity doesn

Explanation: A. Bluetooth networking transmits data via low power radio waves. It communicates on a frequency of 2.45 gigahertz (actually between 2.402 GHz and 2.480 GHz, to be exact). Wi-Fi -IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing wireless local area network (WLAN) computer communication in the 2.4, 3.6 and 5 GHz frequency bands.

1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor material
2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. LED bulbs are grouped in clusters with diffuser lenses which have broadened the applications for LED use in the home.

1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports high definition video
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 3 is incorrect as the thickness of BD is1.1 mm while that of DVD is 1.2 mm. The difference lies in capacity so statement 2 is correct. As far as statement 1 is concerned.

Explanation: A. Virtual Private Network is a method of computer networking typically using the public internet that allows users privately share information between remote locations, or between a remote location and a business home network.

1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. It contains sulphur which is even higher than WTI (West Texas Intermediate) crude oil.

Explanation: A. It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation.

Explanation: D. Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.

1. The Australia group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
2. The Australia group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and north American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar arrangement are predominantly from the European union and American continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The Australia Group (AG) is an informal association that works on the basis of consensus. It aims to allow exporters or transshipment countries to minimize the risk of further proliferation of chemical and biological weapons (CBW). There are not many Asian/African countries in the Australian Group. There are 43 members including India in this group.

1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Twelve countries were part of the founding of NATO: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization is also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty which was signed on 4 April 1949.

1. NAM Summit : Havana
2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
3. EU - India Summit : Helsinki
4. UN Climate Change : Geneva Conference

Codes:

Explanation: B. 14th Nam Summit was held in Havana(Cuba) from 15-16 September 2006.The 17th EU India summit was held in Helsinkion 13 October 2006. 14th APEC Summit was held on 18-19 November 2006 in Hanoi(Vietnam). The 2006 United Nations Climate Change Conference took place between November 6 and 17, 2006 in Nairobi, Kenya.

Explanation: B. Michelle Bachelet was the first female president of Chile from 2006 to 2014.In December 2013, Bachelet was re-elected as President of Chile with over 62% of the vote. She is the first person since 1932 to win the presidency of Chile twice in competitive elections.

Explanation: C. Nick was appointed as a lecturer in Bioengineering at Southampton University in January 2011.

Explanation: C. The Yom Kippur War, also known as the 1973 Arab-Israeli War, was a war fought by the coalition of Arab states led by Egypt and Syria against Israel from October 6 to 25, 1973.

Explanation: C. "Tim" Berners-Lee is best known as the inventor of the World Wide Web.