1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of the State Policy

Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?

Explanation: B. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995 represents a significant step towards the fulfillment of the Directive Principles in Article 41 (Right to Work, to Education and to Public Assistance in certain cases) of the Constitution.

1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical-Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. A trademark is a distinctive sign or indicator used by an individual, business organization, or other legal entity to identify that the products or services to consumers with which the trademark appears originate from a unique source, and to distinguish its products or services from those of other entities. The owner of a registered trademark may commence legal proceedings for trademark infringement to prevent unauthorized use of that trademark. However, registration is not required.

Explanation: C. It included recommendations for Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit.

Explanation: C. The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees twenty lakhs.

Explanation: D. Cases that are pending in regular courts can be transferred to a Lok Adalat if both the parties agree. These are usually presided over by retired judges, social Activists, or other members of the legal profession. Lok Adalats can deal with any matter falling within the jurisdiction whether it is of civil or criminal in nature.

Explanation: A. A copper plate inscription of Maharaja Subandhu, recording his donation for the repair of the vihara was found at the site of Cave 2. Though, the date of the Bagh inscription is missing, the Badwani copper plate inscription is dated in the year (Gupta era) 167 (487).

Explanation: A. Nagarjuna was an early philosopher and was the founder of the Madhyamika philosophy.

1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became a part of Vaishnavism.
2. Invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and persecuted Buddhists.
3. Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Buddha was considered 9th incarnation of Vishnu. No tribe from Central Asia persecuted Buddhists. Gupta dynasty did not oppose Buddhism. However, they did not give them patronage.

Explanation: B.

Explanation: C. Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) was the first to bring into existence and organize the civil services.

Explanation: C. The judicial reforms undertaken by Lord Cornwallis laid a strong foundation in the British Indian administrative system in the year 1793. The judicial reforms of Cornwallis were documented in the famous Cornwallis Code. However the new judicial reforms of Lord Cornwallis were based on the principle of Separation of Powers. Cornwallis at first sought to separate the revenue administration from the administration of justice. The collector used to be the head of the Revenue Department in a district and also enjoyed extensive judicial and magisterial powers. However Cornwallis wanted Separation of Power and the Cornwallis Code divested the collector of all the judicial and the magisterial powers. Thus the Collectors were given only the power of the revenue administration according to the Cornwallis Code. A new class of officer called the District Judge was created to preside over the district Civil Court. The district judge was also given the magisterial and the police function.

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Explanation: A. To avenge their expulsion of Timur Shah, Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India for the fifth time in Oct. 1759, and finally conquered Punjab.

Explanation: A. Simon Commision came in 1927. Diarchy was proposed in the GOI Act, 1919. And it was replaced with the Provincial Autonomy in the GOI Act, 1935.

Explanation: A. Dada Bhai Naoroji presided over the INC session at Calcutta in 1906 in which a resolution supporting the programme of swadeshi, boycott and national education was passed. Ras Behari Ghosh presided over the Surat session in 1907 in which congress was split into moderates and extremists.

Explanation: D. In the last years of the war, Rajagopalachari was instrumental in negotiations between Gandhi and Jinnah. In 1944, he proposed a solution to the Indian Constitutional tangle. He prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation. It was a tacit acceptance of the League's demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the formula. But Jinnah was in favour of two-nation theory only.

Explanation: A. The government's decision to partition Bengal was made public in December, 1903.The official reason given was that Bengal with a population of 78 million was too big to be administered. The government announced partition in July 1905. To boycott this, on Aug 7, 1905, formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made from the Calcutta townhall.

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of the peasants.
2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran investigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as it was Raj Kumar Shukla who requested Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problems of peasants. Gandhi's colleagues in this movement were JB Kriplani, Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, and Narhari Parekh.

Explanation: B. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

Explanation: C. In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war by British PM, Winston Churchill.

1. The "Bombay Manifesto" signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 only.

1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found.
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. About 2.75 percent of water is fresh water an earth and about 95% of it is frozen in glaciers.

1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific Ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific Ocean
2. Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Normal El Nino forms in south

Explanation: C. The Albedo of Snow is hightest.

1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen Oak trees

The above features are distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?

Explanation: A. Mediterranean climate have mild, rainy winter and hot, dry summers and Evergreen, Oak trees.

Explanation: C. Rotation of the earth causes wind to deflect towards left in the Southern Hemisphere.

Explanation: D. Malacca strait is between the Indonesian island of Sumatra and the Malaya Peninsula. Singapore lies on the tip of the Malay Peninsular.

1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The fix boundary of a National Park is described in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The legislation states the actual area of the National Park which is notified by the state government. A biosphere reserve conserves an ecosystem and not just few specific species of plants and animals.

1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 15

Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?

Explanation: C. C is correct option.

1. Copper
2. Nickel
3. Tungsten

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. B is correct option.

1. Bhiterkanika, Odisha
2. Desert National Park
3. Eravikulam, Kerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Hoolak found in North eastern reigon of India. It covers 38% of the forest area. Hoolak Gibbon is found in North Eastern region of India.

Explanation: C. In India tropical moist deciduous forest occupies the largest area. It includes Deccan plateau, the north eastern region of Deccan plateau and the lower slopes of Himalayas and covers the part of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Orissa, Bihar, Chhatisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Kerala. In India, tropical moist deciduous forest covers 38% of the total forest area. It covers the region of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Jharkhand, Karnataka and Kerala.

Explanation: D. Luni river originates from Aravalli range and flows in south west direction through the hills and finally ends up in the marshy land of Rann of Kutch.

Explanation: D. Rivers like Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Sutlej and Yamuna passes through Himachal Pradesh.

Explanation: C. Red soil in India is largely found in Deccan plateau. Red soil is less clayey and sandier in nature and has a rich content of iron and small amount of humus. Red soil is also known as yellow soil. The redness is the soil is due to Jerric oxide, is 2nd largest soil found in India from south of Bundelkhand to North of Raj mahal hill.

Explanation: B. More than 90% of India's coal reserves are found in Gondwana rock system.

Explanation: B. Kolleru lake is one of the largest shallow fresh water lakes in Asia, is located between Krishna delta and the Godavari in Andhra Pradesh.

1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. All the statements given in the question are correct.

Explanation: A. The latitude that passes through Sikkim also pass through Rajasthan.

1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: C. Both 1 and 2.

1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks

Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?

Explanation: C. The different types of soil erosion in India are Normal or Geologic Erosion, Accelerated soil Erosion, Wind Erosion, Water Erosion, sheet Erosion, Gully Erosion, Land slides or slip Erosion and stream-bank Erosion.

Explanation: B. National Food Security Mission launched by government of India to increase the food production of rice, wheat and pulses and commercial gaps like sugarcane jute. The target is to increase the production of rice by 10 million tones, wheat by 8 million tones and pulses, by 2 million tonnes by the end of Eleventh Plan.

1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both 1 and 2.

1. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.

Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?

Explanation: B. The predominant soil in Tamil Nadu is red which supports cotton cultivation and a rich pool of skilled labour is available in Tamil Nadu.

Explanation: B. Maize.

Explanation: B. In the third annual survery of National Geographic Society and Globe Scan, Indian top ranked in Greendex 2009 due to environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour.

Explanation: D. Ramsar convention describes to conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous sustainable use.

1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Global warming is the increase in the average temperature of Earth's near-surface air and oceans by increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases, which result from human activity such as the burning of fossil fuel and deforestation. Climate change mitigation is action to decrease the potential effects of global warming. At a time rate of mitigation is less in India because appropriate technologies are limited and costly. Moreover India don't have huge funds required for research and development in that area.

1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour

Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?

Explanation: D. Ambient temperature simply means "the temperature of the surroundings" and will be the same as room temperature. Indoor the common range of 20

Explanation: C. Deflation is a decrease in the prices of goods and services. It occurs when the annual inflation rate falls below 0% which is a negative inflation rate. This is different from Disinflation which is a slow-down in the inflation rate. This is a situation when inflation declines to lower levels but prices continue to rise.

Explanation: C. ADR is an American Depositary Receipt which represents ownership in the shares of a non-US company that trades in U. S. financial markets. GDR is Global Depositary Receipt is a bank certificate issued in more than one country for shares in a foreign company. A GDR is very similar to ADR. SDR is special Drawing Rights. It is an international type of monetary reserve currency, created by the IMF in 1969. SDR can be thought as an artificial currency used by the IMF and defined as a basket of national currencies.

Explanation: A. CRR or the Cash Reserve Ratio is that ratio of the total deposits held by a bank which it has to keep with the central bank of country.

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPIIW), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

1. A. Melt down Fall in stock prices
2. B. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. C. Slow down Fall in GDP

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Recession is a period of temporary economic decline during which trade and industrial activity are reduced, generally identified by a fall in GDP in two successive quarters. Slow down is a period of slow economic growth, especially one that follows a period of robust growth Melt down follows normally a black swan event and quickly results is financial assets loosing in vlaue, often resulting in liquidity crisis. The stock market in India suffered melt down from Sensex 20,000 in mid 2008 to 10,000 in mid 2009.

1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings

Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?

Explanation: D. Over the past few decades, it has been the private sector that has really driven capacity-creation in Indian higher education. Serious thinking on downsizing bureaucracy had begun in the early 1990s. A sub-group set up by the Planning Commission had suggested in 1993 that the Union government should weed out at least 2,000 senior-level positions in various ministries.

1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.

Which of the statements, given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: B. The correct answer is B.

1. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came, into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following:
2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

Explanation: A. The objectives of establishing SEZs Special export Zones include making available goods and services free of taxes and duties supported by an integrated infrastructure for export production, and single window approval mechanism and a package of incentives to attract foreign and domestic investments for promoting export-led growth.

Explanation: B. India has comprehensive Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) with 23 countries. This means that there are agreed rates of tax and jurisdiction on specified types of income arising in a country to a tax resident of another country. Under the Income Tax Act 1961 of India, there are two specific provisions, Section 90 and Section 91, which provide specific relief to taxpayers to save them from DTAA. Section 90 is for taxpayers who have paid the tax in a country with which India has signed DTAA, while Section 91 provides relief to taxpayers who have paid tax to a country with which India has not signed a DTAA. Thus, India gives relief to both kind of taxpayers Mauritius by itself is a low tax counting.

1. Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created, in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. A neutrino is an elementary particle that usually travels close to the speed of light, is electrically neutral, and is able to pass through ordinary matter almost undisturbed. This makes neutrinos extremely difficult to detect. Neutrinos have a very small, but nonzero rest mass. Neutrinos are affected only by a 'weak' sub-atomic force of much shorter range than electromagnetism, and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter without being affected by it.

Explanation: C. Inclusive growth is 'broad-based growth', 'shared growth', and 'pro-poor growth'. It excludes the capital markets which is left to operate by itself in the open market.

Explanation: A. As per provisions given under Article 281 of the Indian Constitution the recommendations of the finance commission go to the president who is constitutionally bound to place it before the two houses of the parliament.

Explanation: B. The DEA or the Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for preparation and presentation to the Parliament of Central Budget and the Budgets for the State Governments under President

1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies in the context of economic recession

Which of the above actions can be considered a part of the "fiscal stimulus" package?

Explanation: A. Abolishing the subsidies will lead to higher prices of goods and services which are subsidzed. A reduction in the tax rate would be a stimulus. While increase in government expenditure would increase the level of demand in the economy.

Explanation: C. It was during eighth plan period (1992-97) that emphasis was put on infrastructure development.

1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Explanation: C. On 27 January 2005, the Government had decided to constitute a 'National Investment Fund' (NIF) into which realization from sale of minority shareholding of the Government in CPSEs would be channelised. This fund is managed by professionals and a part of it is used for use in social sector

Explanation: C. The excise duty's share in the total tax revenue, which was 41.3 percent in 1992-93, declined to 25.1 percent in 2006-07. The customs duty's share in the total tax revenue, which was 31.9 percent in 1992-93, fell to 17.5 percent in 2006-07, as a result of massive structuring on excise and customs.

Explanation: B. State Finace Commission governs the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of such proceeds; the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned as, or appropriated by, the Panchayats; the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. 1 only.

1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.

Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Statutory minimum price of sugar come for every season is a policy provision while sugar and sugar came falls within essential commodities act.

1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account

Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: B. A non-banking financial company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 and is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stock/bonds/debentures/ securities issued by government or local authority or other securities of like marketable nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business, but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. They cannot accept demand deposits like commercial banks as they are not a part of clearance and settlement system.

Explanation: A. Bear is a speculator who sells shares in anticipation of fall operator prices to buy them back and thus make a profit.

Explanation: D. It is fixed by Reserve Bank of India. In 2011, RBI permitted the commercial banks to fix interest rate on saving account independently

Explanation: C. The Banking ombudsman Scheme is an expeditious and inexpensive forum for bank customers for resolution of complaints relating to certain services rendered by banks. Any person aggrieved by the decision of the Banking Ombudsman can approach the Appellate Authority. The Appellate Authority is vested with a Deputy Governor of the RBI.

1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the "financial inclusion" in India?

Explanation: D. "Financial inclusion" is the delivery of financial services at affordable costs to vast sections of disadvantaged and low income groups. Banking services are in the nature of public good. It is essential that availability of banking and payment services be available to the entire population without discrimination.

1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Miscellaneous functions of commercial banks in India include: Transfer and collection of funds, purchase and sale of shares on behalf of customers, acting as executors and transfers of wills, purchase and sale of foreign exchange etc.

Explanation: A. International Development Association (IDA) , is that part of the World Bank that helps the world

Explanation: C. hydrogen vehicle is an alternative fuel vehicle that uses hydrogen as its onboard fuel for motive power. The hydrogen vehicle use hydrogen fuel cell for generation of motive power. These fuel cell in which hydrogen serve as a fuel and oxygen as an oxidant emits exhaust of water.

Explanation: B. Carbon Monoxide pollution occurs primarily from emissions produced by fossil fuel powered engines. The incomplete reaction of air with fuel produces the colourless, odourless and highly toxic gas. The main issue with Carbon Monoxide is its health effects. It is capable of binding to the chemicals in our blood, called haemoglobin. It does so far more effectively than oxygen and also stays bound to the haemoglobin for far longer than oxygen does. The effect is that the blood is starved of oxygen, which then affects the rest of the body.

Explanation: B. Ethanol is produced in India from maize, sugarcane, starch, corn grain etc. Maize is easily available and maize is not costly for product as to economic concern.

Explanation: B. Insectivorous plants prey insects because most of the insectivorous plants grow in those area where there is deficiet of nitrogen in nutrients so they catch insect to fulfil its need of nutrients.

Explanation: B. Mon 863 is genetically modified variety of maize, which is resistant of corn root worm.

1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

Explanation: A. Both tea and coffee is propagated by seeds and stem cutting, so the (2) option is wrong.

1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks

Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?

Explanation: D. Crop rotation, Sand fences, terracing and wind breaks all are used for sand conservation in India. Sand fences is a simple and cheap method of inducing accretion of sands in arid and sandy areas.

1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: C. Pongamia Pinnata is adaptable to arid zones, and has a varied habitat distribution and able to grown in a variety of soils, it is native to humid and subtropical environment and grows naturally along coasts and river banks of India and Myanmar. It is nitrogen-fixing trees.

1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV / AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: C. Hepatitis-B is a potentially life-threatening liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus. It can cause chronic liver disease and puts people at high risk of death from cirrhosis of liver and liver cancer. Hepatitis-B virus is transmitted between people by contact with blood or other body fluid of an contact with the blood or other body fluid.

Explanation: B. B is correct option.

Explanation: B. B is correct option.

Explanation: A. Asia.

1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: A. It has been formulated by ministry of rural development.

Explanation: C. Bhuvan, is a software application which allows users to explore a 2D/3D representation of the surface of the Earth. ISRO launched the beta version of its web-based GIS tool, Bhuvan, on August 12, 2009. Bhuvan offers detailed imagery of Indian locations compared to other Virtual Globe Software, with spatial resolutions ranging up to 1 metre.

1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.
2. predicting the onset of monsoons.
3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Oceansat-2 continues with the service of oceansat-1. The main objectives of oceansat-2 are to study surface winds and ocean surface strata, observation of chlorophyll concentration, monitoring of phytoplanktion blooms, study of atmospheric aerosol and suspended sediments in wath.

Explanation: B. The CyberKnife VSI Robotic Radiosurgery System is a non-invasive alternative to surgery for the treatment of both cancerous and non-cancerous tumours anywhere in the body including the Prostate, Lung, Brain, Spine, Liver, Pancreas and Kidney. The treatment delivering beams of high-dose radiation to tumours with extreme accuracy offers new hope to patients worldwide.

Explanation: B. Golden rice is genetically modified rice. It contains Beta carotene and other carotenoids. Provitamin A(Beta carotene) which upon ingestion converted to Vitamin A in the body.

1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven 4. Wi-Fi device

Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?

Explanation: D. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths ranging from as long as one meter to as short as one millimeter, or equivalently, with frequencies between 300 MHz (0.3 GHz) and 300 GHz. A microwave oven passes (non-ionizing microwave radiation (at a frequency near 2.45 GHz) through food, causing dielectric heating by absorption of energy in the water, fats and sugar contained in the food. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi have many applications: setting up networks, printing, or transferring files. They also work in the given frequency range. All cordless sold in the US use the 1.9 GHz or 2.4-GHz bands

Explanation: D. In order to undergo LASIK procedure one should be at least 18 years old, as the vision of people younger than 18 usually continues to change.

Explanation: C. More than 3.8 billion people worldwide used the Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM) family of technologies as of May 2009. GSM is the most widely usesd wireless technology in the world. GSM has straight forward, cost-effective migration path to 3G through GPRS, EDGE and UMTS-HSPA, as well as beyond 3G via the HSPA Evolution (HSPA+). LTE and System Architecture Evolution(SAE) initiatives.

Explanation: C. Zirconium is used to slowdown fast moving neutrons in nuclear reactors. Zirconium is the leading material for nuclear fuel assemblies used in light water reactors because it is transparent to neutrons.

Explanation: A. Collision with a Soyuz cargo ship.

Explanation: D. USA's nimbus Satellites used for meteorological research and development in1960

Explanation: C. MERCOSUR originally consists of four countries from Latin America to South America viz. Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay and Uruguay. Later Venezuela joined the group.It promotes free trade and movement of goods and services.

Explanation: