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UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2009

1. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Minister shall not exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members of the House of the People?

Explanation: B. The above provision has been added by 91st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003.

2. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily be a sitting members of Lok Sabha only.
  2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Statement 1 is incorrect as members of Rajya Sabha can become cabinet ministers. Statement 2 is incorrect as Cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the PM.

3. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
  1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
  2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. According to Article 70 the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 is made by the President of India under Article 77 of the constitution for the allocation of business of the government of India. The Ministries/ Departments of the government of India are created by the president on the advice of the prime Minister under these Rules.

4. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
  2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as Advocate General of the state is appointed by the governor of the State. Statement 2 is correct. The original civil jurisdiction of the High Courts has not altogether been abolished but retained in respect of actions of higher value. The Original Criminal Jurisdiction of High Courts has, however, been completely taken away by the criminal procedure code, 1973.

5. Consider the following statements:
  1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.
  2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as CAT was set up in1985 during the prime ministership of Rajiv Gandhi.

6. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:
  1. Number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
  2. Number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The number of ministeries at the Centre can vary based on factors such as volume of work, importance attached to different sectors, changes of orientation of policy etc. On 15 Aug, 1947, the number of ministries at the centre was 18.

7. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

Explanation: C. Duration of Panchayats is five year. Fresh election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed before the expiry of its term; or in case of dissolution fresh election is to be conducted before the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date of its dissolution.

8. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?

Explanation: B. In 1688, the first Municipal Corporation of India was set up in Madras.

9. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:
  1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no appeal lies against there to any court.
  2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Fundamental Rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners: Rights available under Article-15, 16, 19, 29 & 30. Fundamental Rights available to bath citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens): Rights available under Article

10. Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following?

Explanation: B. The Jaina metaphysics is realistic and relativistic pluralism. It is called Anekantavada or the doctrine of 'manyness of reality'. Matter and spirit are regarded as separate and independent realities.

11. Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?

Explanation: C. Oldest temple in Hampi (Pattadkal) located on southern bank of river Tungabhadra. It is now a World Heritage site. It was built by Lokamahadevi, the Queen of Vikaramaditya II (A.D.733-745) in about A.D.740 to commemorate her husband

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Vidyashankara temple 1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. B. Rajarani temple 2. Karnataka
  3. C. Kandariya Mahadeo temple 3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. D. Bhimesvara temple 4. Orissa

Code:

Explanation: A. Bhimeshwar (Kakinada); Kandariya Mahadeo (Khajuraho); Rajarani temple (Bhubneshvar); Vidyashankara Temple (Sringeri).

13. With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat?

Explanation: B. James-I William Hawkins sent to the court of Jahangir and Jahangir provided the farman which allowed East India Co. to set up a factory at Surat in 1613.

14. In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, who of the following established Hindu College at Calcutta?

Explanation: D. The foundation of Hindu College at Calcutta was laid on January 20, 1817.

15. Consider the following statements:
  1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.
  2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The first electric telegraph line in India was started between Kolkata and Diamond Harbour in 1850 and first export zone of India set up in Kandla in 1965.

16. In the 'Individual Satyagraha', Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second?

Explanation: B. It was started in October 1940.

17. Consider the following statements: The Cripps Proposals include the provision for
  1. Full independence for India.
  2. Creation of constitution-making body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The Cripps proposals did not include the provision for full independence for India but offered an Indian union with a dominion status. The Congress objected to the provision of dominion status instead of complete independence. After the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constituion.

18. During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in:

Explanation: C. There was an award of 5000 on her arrest. Later she was called the grand old lady of the independence movement

19. Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?

Explanation: D. In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war by British PM, Winston Churchill.

20. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation?

Explanation: C. It was passed in March 1919, even though every single Indian member of the Central legislative council opposed it. It became a reason for Jallianwala Bagh tragedy of Amritsar on 13 April, 1919.

21. Which one of the following began with the Dandi March?

Explanation: C. Gandhi, on March 12, 1930 started March his from the Sabarmati Ashram with 72 people and reached Dandi (coastal Gujarat) on April 6, 1930, and broke the salt law by picking up a handful of salt at Dandi and announced the commencement of Civil Disobedience Movement.

22. With which one of the following movements is the slogan "Do or die" associated?

Explanation: D. Gandhiji gave a call for do or die in 1942 during Quit India Movement. He said we shall either free India or die in the attempt; we shall not live to see the perpetuation of our slavery.

23. Who founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association?

Explanation: A. Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association was founded in 1917.

24. In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16th October 1905 is well known for?

Explanation: B. This day was observed as a day of mourning throughout Bengal. People fasted, bathed in the Ganga and walked barefoot in processions singing Bande Mataram. People tied rakhis as a symbol of unity of the two halves of Bengal.

25. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Gatka, a traditional martial art : Kerala
  2. Madhubani, a traditional painting : Bihar
  3. Singhey Khababs Sindhu Darshan Festival : Jammu &Kashmir

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Gatka is an Indian martial arts focused primarily on weapons, especially swords and stick fighting. Gatka martial artists consider this ancient martial arts style as the "mother of all martial arts". This martial arts was developed in Punjab, India. It is often associated with Punjabi or Sikh forms of combat.

26. Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

Explanation: A. Jupiter has maximum moons accounting to 63 whereas Satun has 61, Mars has 2 and Venus has none.

27. In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following?

Explanation: C. The core of earth is made up of nickle and iron.

28. Consider the following countries:
  1. Australia
  2. Namibia
  3. Brazil
  4. Chile

Through which of the above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass?

Explanation: D. The Tropic of Capricorn runs through 10 countries: Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar, Australia, Chile, Argentina, Paraguay and Brazil.

29. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Located in north eastern Germany on the banks of the rivers spree and Havel, Berlin is the centre of the Berlin - Brandenburg Metropolitan Region.

30. Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density?

Explanation: A. Overall population density of India is 324. Nepal is 102, Pakistan is 146, Sri Lanka is 280 person per square kilometers.

31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Great Victoria Desert 1. Australia
  2. B. Grand Canyon 2. Canada
  3. C. Lake Winnipeg 3. New Zealand
  4. D. Southern Alps 4. USA

Code:

Explanation: B. A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3.

32. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched is located on the coast of:

Explanation: A. Cape Canaveral is the part of Florida's coast.

33. Which among the following has the world's largest reserves of Uranium?

Explanation: A. Australia has the world's largest uranium reserves. Approximately 24% of the planet's uranium is present in Australia.

34. Which one of the following is the country's administrative capital new federal administrative centre of Malaysia?

Explanation: C. Putrajaya is new federal administrative centre of Malaysia.

35. Consider the following regions:
  1. Eastern Himalayas
  2. Eastern Mediterranean region
  3. North-Western Australia

Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s)?

Explanation: B. Eastern Himalayas and Eastern Mediterranean region are Biodiversity hotspots.

36. In India, which one of the following states has the largest inland saline wetland?

Explanation: D. Rajasthan has the largest inland saline wetland, area of Sambhan Salt lake.

37. In India, the ports are categorized as major and nonmajor ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port?

Explanation: B. Dahej is a not a major port of India.

38. In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found?

Explanation: B. The Shompen tribe is one of two Mongloid tribes found in Nicobar Island.

39. The Dul Hasti Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers?

Explanation: B. The Dul Hasti Power Station is on the Chenab river in Jammu and Kashmir.

40. Consider the following statements:
  1. In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.
  2. In India, the east Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. In India, the south-west monsoon causes high rainfall in east Himalayan region.

41. Consider the following statements:
  1. Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.
  2. Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Infant mortality rate indicates the number of infant death under one years of age per 1000 live birth under one year of age.

42. Consider the following statements:
  1. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.
  2. Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The rate of population density increase in India is as follows: Density 1951

43. Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India?

Explanation: D. Sutlej originates from the central Sulaiman range in Pakistan.

44. At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important rivers flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea?

Explanation: A. Amarkantak is the origin of River Narmada and Sone.

45. Consider the following statements:
  1. India does not have any deposits of Thorium.
  2. Kerala's monazite sands contains Uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. India has 12% of thorium deposits of the world.

46. Consider the following statements:
  1. There are no east flowing rivers in Kerala.
  2. There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Three east flowing rivers found in Kerala is Kavari, Tapti, Narmada and Mahi rivers flows westward, and also flows through Madhya Pradesh. East flowing rivers of Kerala are Kabani, Bhavani and Pambar. The west flowing rivers in M.P. are Narmada, Tapti, Mahi.

47. In the context of CO2 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/ incentives from the developed countries to adopt better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions?

Explanation: C. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), defined in Article 12 of the Protocol, allows a country with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries.

48. Consider the following:
  1. Fringe Benefit Tax
  2. Interest Tax
  3. Securities Transaction Tax

Which of the above is/are Direct Tax/Taxes?

Explanation: D. Fringe Benefits Tax (FBT) was the tax applied to most, although not all, fringe benefits. A new tax was imposed on employers by India

49. During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected?

Explanation: C. This all happened from 1975-78 during fifth five year plan the period of which is (1974-78).

50. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning:
  1. The Second Five-Year Plan emphasized on the establishment of heavy industries.
  2. The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialization.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The second five-year plan emphasized on the development of the public sector and "rapid industrialization". The third five

51. Which one of the following brings out the publication called "Energy Statistics" from time to time?

Explanation: D. It is published by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Central Statistical Organization.

52. In the context of independent India's economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place?

Explanation: C. Nationalization of State Bank of India

53. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.
  2. The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The National Development Council (NDC) in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission consisting of rice, wheat and pulses and to increase the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011

54. Consider the following statements:
  1. MMTC Limited is India's largest international trading organization.
  2. Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited (NINL), a company promoted by MMTC Ltd, Industrial Promotion and Investment Corporation of Orissa Limited (IPICOL) and other government agencies has set up an 1.1 million ton Integrated Iron and steel plant at Kalinganagar, Duburi, Orissa.

55. Which one of the following sets of commodities are exported to India by arid and semi-arid countries in the Middle East?

Explanation: B. Fruits and palm oil are exported to India by arid and semi arid countries of Middle East.

56. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Shangai

57. In a dry cell (battery), which of the following are used as electrolytes?

Explanation: A. A dry cell has the electrolyte immobilized as a paste, with only enough moisture in the paste to allow current to flow. The electrolyte is ammonium chloride in the form of a paste next to the zinc anode. In some more modern types of so called 'high power' batteries, the ammonium chloride has been replaced by zinc chloride.

58. Which one of the following is used as an explosive?

Explanation: D. Nitroglycerine (NG) also known as nitroglycerine, trinitroglycerin, trinitroglycerine, 1,2,3 tri nitroxypropane and glyceryl trinitrate is a heavy, colorless, oily, explosive liquid obtained by nitrating glycerol. Alfred Nobel discovered that mixing nitroglycerin with diatomaceous earth would turn the liquid into a paste, called dynamite. An advantage of dynamite was that it could be cylinder-shaped for insertion into the drilling holes used for mining.

59. Consider the following statements:
  1. Sweet orange plant is propagated by grafting technique.
  2. Jasmine plant is propagated by layering technique.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Grafting is a most common method of vegetative propagation. In this method, parts of two plants are joined in such a way that they grow as a one plant. Sweet orange plant is propagated by grafting technique. Layering is another type of vegetative propagation. In this method, roots are artificially induced on the stem branches before they are detached from the plant for propagation. Jasmine plant is propagated by this technique.

60. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used?

Explanation: D. Saffron is a spice obtained from the stigma of the flower of Crocus sativus Linnaeus.

61. In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following: A woman suffers from colour blindness while her husband does not suffer from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probably correct?

Explanation: D. Son suffers from colour blindness while daughter does not suffer from it.

62. In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is a

Explanation: A. Bats are commonly known as fruits bats or flying foxes. In India these are present in North-Eastern parts or in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

63. With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following sequences is correct?

Explanation: C. According to evolution of living organisms Salamander-Python-Kangaroo, because the evolution started from amphibians 350 million years ago, reptiles appeared 300 million years ago and 200 million years ago first small mammals appeared.

64. The Panda belongs to the same family as that of

Explanation: A. Panda and bear belongs to family Ursidae. Pandas are medium sized bears. Of all the endangered bear species they have the most distinguished colour combination.

65. The marine animal called Dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is

Explanation: D. Dugong is a large marine mammal. Dugong has a fusiform body with no dorsal fin or hind limbs, instead of possessing paddle. Dugong is heavily dependent on sea grass for subsistence. Dugong bear one calf at a time after an approximately 13 month gestation.

66. Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum?

Explanation: A. The foundation was founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab, a German-born business professor at the University of Geneva. Originally named the European Management Forum, it changed its name to the World Economic Forum in 1987.

67. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Cannes : France
  2. Davos : Denmark
  3. Roland Garros : The Netherlands

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Davos is a town in Switzerland and Roland Garros is in England.

68. Who of the following is the author of the book "The Audacity of Hope"?

Explanation: B. The Audacity of Hope is a 2006 autobiographical work by Barack Obama.

69. A present group of nations known as G-8 started first as G-7. Which one among the following was not one of them?

Explanation: D. The Group of Seven (G7) is an informal bloc of industrialized democracies

70. Consider the following countries:
  1. Switzerland
  2. Malta
  3. Bulgaria

Which of the above are members of European Union?

Explanation: B. The EU countries are: Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria, Croatia, Republic of Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the UK.

71. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Asian Development Bank : Tokyo
  2. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation : Singapore
  3. Association of South East Asian Nations : Bangkok

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. The headquarters of Asia pacific economic cooperation is in Singapore. The headquarters of Association of Southeast Asia Nations (ASEAN) is in Jakarta, Indonesia. The headquarters of Asian Development Bank is in the city of Philippines.

72. With reference to the United Nations, consider the following statements:
  1. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States.
  2. It is elected by a 2/3rd majority of the General Assembly for a 3-year term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The United Nations Economic and Social Council has 54 member states which are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms. They are elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms. Seats on the Council are allotted based on geographical representation with fourteen allocated to African States, eleven to Asian States, six to Eastern European States, ten to Latin American and Caribbean States as well as thirteen to Western European and other States. They are elected by 2/3rd majority of the General Assembly.

73. Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogaden?

Explanation: B. Ethiopia and Somalia fought wars for Ogaden.

74. Consider the following countries:
  1. Brunei Darussalam
  2. East Timor
  3. Laos

Which of the above is/are member/members of ASEAN?

Explanation: C. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, is a geo-political and economic organization of 10 countries located in Southeast Asia, which was formed on 8 August 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Since then, membership has expanded to include Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Laos, and Vietnam.

75. Other than Venezuela, which one among the following from South America is a member of OPEC?

Explanation: C. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a cartel of twelve developing countries made up of Algeria, Angola, Ecuador, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela.

76. Consider the following pairs:
  1. ABN Amro Bank : USA
  2. Barclays Bank : UK
  3. Kookmin Bank : Japan

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. ABN AMRO Bank N.V. is a Dutch bank with headquarters in Amsterdam, the Netherlands. Barclays PLC is a global financial services company headquartered in London, United Kingdom. Kookmin Bank is the largest bank by both asset value and market capitalization in South Korea.

77. Consider the following pairs:
  1. BMW AG : USA
  2. Daimler AG : Sweden
  3. Renault S.A. : France
  4. Volkswagen AG : Germany

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. BMW AG and Daimler AG are Head quartered in Germany.

78. The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of

Explanation: B. Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States, and ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly (with end of term date).

79. The brothers Umakant and Ramakant Gundecha are

Explanation: A. Umakant Gundecha and Ramakant Gundecha, known as the Gundecha Brothers, are leading Dagarvani dhrupad singers.

80. Which one of the following is not a drug/ pharma company?

Explanation: A. Chevron Corporation is an American multinational energy corporation.

81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Amrita Sher-Gil 1. Dancer
  2. B. Bhimsen Joshi 2. Painter
  3. C. Rukmini Devi Arundale 3. Poet
  4. D. Suryakant Tripathi Nirala 4. Singer

Codes:

Explanation: B. A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3.

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. In Custody 1. Amartya Sen
  2. B. Sea of Poppies 2. Amitav Ghosh
  3. C. The Argumentative Indian 3. Anita Desai
  4. D. Unaccustomed Earth 4. Jhumpa Lahiri

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4

83. Who of the following is the author of a collection of poems called "Golden Threshold"?

Explanation: C. Golden Thresold is a collection of poems by Sarojini Naidu.

84. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Ashok Leyland : Hinduja Group
  2. Hindalco Industries : A.V. Birla Group
  3. Suzlon Energy : Punj Lloyd Group

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: A. The Hinduja Group is a global conglomerate company headquartered in London, United Kingdom. Ashok Leyland is one of its companies. Hindalco Industries Limited, the metals flagship company of the Aditya Birla Group, is the world's largest aluminium rolling company and one of the biggest producers of primary aluminium in Asia.

85. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?

Explanation: A. The DAE is under the direct control of PM with its Headquarter in Mumbai.)

86. Where is the headquarters of Animal Welfare Boards of India located?

Explanation: B. The Animal Welfare Board of India was set up in 1962 with its headquarter at Madras, under the provisions of the "Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960" (PCA Act. 1960).

87. Consider the following statements:
  1. The National School of Drama was set up by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 1959.
  2. The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Both 1 and 2

88. For outstanding contribution to which one of the following fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given

Explanation: C. The Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for Science and Technology (SSB) is a science award in India given annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) for notable and outstanding research, applied or fundamental, in biology, chemistry, environmental science, engineering, mathematics, medicine and Physics.

89. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?

Explanation: C. Giani Zail Singh was the 7th president of India. He also became 9th Secretary General of Non Aligned Movement.

90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. MandakiniAmte 1. Theatre direction
  2. B. Neelam Mansingh 2. Social service and Chowdhary community leadership
  3. C. Romila Thapar 3. Dance
  4. D. Vanashree Rao 4. History writing

Codes:

Explanation: A. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3

91. With reference to Stree Shakti Puraskar, for which one of the following is "Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award" given

Explanation: A. Administrative Skills.

92. In which State is the Buddhist site Tabo Monastery located?

Explanation: B. Tabo Monastery is located in the Tago village of Spiti Valley, Himachal Pradesh.

93. Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

Explanation: D. The Agaria are a Muslim community found in the state of Gujarat in India.

94. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Pamela Jelimo is a Kenyan middle-distance runner, specialising in the 800 metres.

95. Who of the following is a football player?

Explanation: D. Nicolas Sebastien Anelka is a French footballer.

96. Among the following which one is not a football club?

Explanation: D. Monte Carlo officially refers to an administrative area of the Principality of Monaco specifically the ward of Monte, where the Monte Carlo Casino is located.

97. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Anand Pawar : Chess
  2. Akhil Kumar : Boxing
  3. Shiv Shankar Prasad Chowrasia : Golf

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Anand Pawar is a male Indian badminton player who competed at 2012 Japan Super Series.

98. A very big refugee camp called Dadaab, recently in the news, is located in

Explanation: B. Kenya.

99. Consider the following names:
  1. Ike
  2. Kate
  3. Gustav

Which of the above are the names of hurricanes that had occurred very recently?

Explanation: C. Option C is correct.

100. In the latter half of the year 2008, which one of the following countries pulled out of Commonwealth of Independent States?

Explanation: C. Georgia.

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