1. Justice V R Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V R Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Justice P. N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to admit PIL's in the court.

1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. Mohd. Hidayatullah (1979-84); Shankar Dayal Sharma (1987-92).

1. A. Nagendra Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
2. B. A. N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
3. C. R. K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
4. D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India

Code:

Explanation: B. Ashok Desai was Attorney General of India (1996-98); Nagendra Singh was President of International Court of Justice (1985-88); AN Ray was CJI (1973-77); RK Trivedi was Chief Election Commissioner (1982-85).

1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/ she is less than 25 years of age

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 2 is correct as per provisions given under Article 173. Statement 1 is incorrect as according to article 170, the legislative assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as it is a Fundamental Right under article 23 of Part III of the constitution. Statement 2 corresponds to Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 47 under Part IV of the Constitution.

Explanation: B. Fifth schedule relates to the control and administration of scheduled areas in states other than Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram. While Sixth Schedule deals with administration and control of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.

Explanation: C. 92nd Amendment Act 2003 added Bodo, Santhali, Maithali and Dogri languages in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution. Originally there were 14 languages in the 8th schedule. 21st amendment act added Sindhi language. 71st amendment act added Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages.

Explanation: A. This is same as the Pythagoras theorem.

Explanation: B. William Hawkins visited the court of Jahangir and received a farman which allowed East India Company to set up their first factory at Surat in 1613.

Explanation: C. A-2; B-3; C-1.

Explanation: C. Gopala Krishna Gokhale.

Explanation: C. In January 1942, the Propaganda Ministry announced the formation of the "Indian National Army" (Jai Hind) in Berlin. At the end of July 1942, three hundred volunteers were issued German Army uniforms bearing a badge on the right arm which showed a leaping tiger superimposed on an Indian tricolour, surrounded by the legend "Freies Indien". The men were then officially designated the "Free Indian Legion".

Explanation: B. Suggested in June, 1945 by the Viceroy Lord Wavell in Shimla. It is also known as the Wavell Plan.

Explanation: C. K.G. Deshpande, a friend of Aurbindo from his Cambridge days, was in charge of a weekly, "Induprakash", published from Bombay. He requested Sri Aurobindo to write upon the current political situation. Sri Aurobindo began writing a series of fiery articles under the title "New Lamps for Old", strongly criticising the Congress for its moderate policy.

Explanation: C. He wrote a book entitled Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.

Explanation: C. Lord Chelmsford (1916

Explanation: C. Following his education at Fergusson College in Pune, Kriplani worked as a schoolteacher before joining the freedom movement following Gandhi

Explanation: A. The Al-Hilal was a newspaper established by Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The newspaper also espoused the cause of the Indian independence movement and exhorted Indian Muslims to join the movement. The newspaper was shut down under the Press Act of 1914.

Explanation: B. INC was formed on 28 Dec, 1885 in Bombay and its first session was held under the Presidentship of W.C. Banerjee.

Explanation: B. Subh-e Azadi (Dawn of freedom) was written in August, 1947 after the partition of India.

Explanation: A. R explains A. As in September, 1939, the viceroy unilaterally declared that India was at war with Germany without bothering to consult any Indian leader. In protest, Congress ministeries resigned in October, 1939. Muslim league declared it as the Day of Deliverance.

Explanation: B. Jupiter and Saturn are located between Mars and Uranus.

Explanation: B. Malta is in the centre of Mediterranean sea. Italy is in south and Libya is located north of Malta. Its area is 246 sq km.

Explanation: D. Singapore is 200 km north of equator.

Explanation: B. Bering Strait is nearest to the International Date line. Located 1.5 km away from international date line.

1. Ukraine
2. Romania
3. Belarus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: A. Maldova is a land locked country in Eastern Europe. It shares boundaries with Romania in the west and Ukraine in the north, east and south.

1. Ajman is one of the seven emirates of the UAE.
2. Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Ajman is one of the seven emirates constituting the United Arab Emirates with an area of 260 sq kilometer. Ras al-Khaimah was the 7th and last Sheikhdom to join UAE in 1972.

Explanation: B. USA and Indonesia.

Explanation: C. As per India's National Population Policy - 2000, by 2045 India will achieve population stability which means that the size of population will not go up.

Explanation: C. The correct answer is (C).

Explanation: A. On the basis of 2001 census, 9.8% of population Himachal Pradesh, 10.5% of population of Bihar, 15% of population of Orissa & 20.8 % of population of Uttar Pradesh live in rural areas.

Explanation: D. Population of Sikkim is 54,0851. Population of Chandigarh is 901,000, Population of Pondicherry is 974000 and population of Mizoram is 889,000.

Explanation: B. Mahogany is a species of tree found throughout the Caribbean, central and south America but not in Himalayas.

Explanation: B. Kanchenjunga.

Explanation: B. Omkareshwar Project is associated with Narmada river.

Explanation: C. 9 states of India have a coastline. Gujrat, Maharastra, Karnataka, Kerla, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.

Explanation: C. Nilgiri hills are at the junction of the eastern and western ghats of the Sahayadri hills. The heights of the hills range varies between 2,280 and 2,290 metres.

1. Chambal Narmada
2. Son Yamuna
3. Manas Brahmaputra

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Tributaries of Brahmaputra in India the Manas, Pagladiya, Puthimari, Dhanisri, Jia Bhariti and Subansiri. Manas is a tributary of Brahmaputra Chambal is the chief tributary of Yammuna and sone is a tributary of Ganga.

1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. Shrew and Tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Salt water crocodile was common and found throughout the Andaman and Nicobar Islands living in the mangrove habitats. Shrew and Tapir are found in western ghats of the Malabar region.

Explanation: A. Namchik-Namphuk coalfields are located in Arunachal Pradesh

1. Bauxite
2. Dolomite
3. Iron ore
4. Tin

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. The minerals deposits in Chhatisgarh is Bauxite (96 million ton), Dolomite (606 million ton) and iron ore (2336 million ton). Tin is not found in Chhatisgarh.

Explanation: B. The Tehri Hydropower complex is located on the Bhagirathi river of Uttar Pradesh.

1. Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
2. Jog Falls : Sharavathi
3. Shivasamudram Falls : Cauvery

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. Shivasamudram falls is located on river Cauvery. Jog waterfall is the highest waterfall in India of 253 metres on Sharavathi river.

1. Damanganga : Gujarat
2. Girna : Maharashtra
3. Pamba : Kerala

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. Damanganga water project is in Gujarat. Girna irrigation project is in Jalgaon area of Maharashtra. Pamba river is located in Kerala.

Explanation: C. Tapovan and Vishnugarh hydroelectric project are located in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.

1. Ludhiana
2. Kochi
3. Surat
4. Nagpur

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. According to the Census of 2001 of India, the population of Ludhiana is 1,398,467, Surat is 2,433,835 and Nagpur is 2,052,066.

Explanation: A. Andaman and Nicobar has 9 national parks; Assam has 6, Arunachal Pradesh and Maghalaya both have 2 each.

Explanation: C. India has largest livestock population in the world, having 57% of world

1. Chikmangalur is well-known for sugar production.
2. Mandya is well-known as a coffee producing region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Chikmangalur is famous for coffee. Mandya is famous for sugar and paper production.

1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is one of the Flexible Mechanisms defined in the Kyoto Protocol (IPCC, 2007) that provides for emissions reduction projects which generate Certified Emission Reduction units which may be traded in emissions trading schemes. The CDM is defined in Article 12 of the Protocol and is intended to meet two objectives: (1) to assist parties not included in Annex I in achieving sustainable development and in contributing to the ultimate objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change(UNFCCC), which is to prevent dangerous climate change; and (2) to assist parties included in Annex I in achieving compliance with their quantified emission limitation and reduction commitments (greenhouse gas (GHG) emission caps).

1. GDP per capita (current prices) : 37,000
2. Rice : 180 million tons
3. Wheat : 75 million tons

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. Rice production was 96.69 Million tonnes in 2007-08.

1. All persons of 60 years or above belonging to the households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
2. The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Neither 1 nor 2.

Explanation: D. Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation.

Explanation: C. Xenon is called the 'stranger' gas. This gas very un-reactive and heavier than air, that was why named strange (in greek it means 'xenon').

Explanation: B. The lightest metal in the periodic table is lithium (Li) with atomic number 3 density 0.53 kg/L. Lithium metal is extremely soft (and highly reactive) and so is unusable for many applications. Osmium is a hard metallic element which has the greatest density of all known elements. It is twice as heavy as lead, and has a specific gravity of 22.59.

Explanation: C. Bisphenol A, commonly abbreviated as BPA, is an organic compound with two phenol functional groups. Bisphenol A is used primarily to make plastics which is used in making food packaging material. It is a key monomer in production of epoxy resins and used to make polycarbonate plastic. Polycarbonate plastic, which is clear and nearly shatter-proof, is used to make a variety of common products including baby and water bottles, sports equipment, medical and dental devices, dental fillings and sealants, eyeglass lenses, CDs and DVDs, and household electronics.

Explanation: C. Cause of blast in a mine in generally mixture of methane and air. CH4 in the main gas exerted from a mine, when it comes in contact with air, explosions take place.

1. Rice fields
2. Coal mining
3. Domestic animals
4. Wet lands

Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?

Explanation: D. Rice fields, coal mining, domestic animal and wet lands all are the sources of methane.

Explanation: B. Pitcher plant is an insectivorous plant. It feeds on living creatures including insects and small mammals. These plant attracts the prey with a smell of rotting meat. The victim is dissolved by plant enzymes.

1. Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans
2. Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Probiotics are the living microorganisms that are healthy for host organism. Lactic acid bacteria, Bifido bacteria are common type of microbes used as probiotics. Certain yeast and Bacilli may also useful. Probiotics are commonly consumed as a part of fermented food with specially added active live cultures such as yoghurt or as dietary supplements.

Explanation: C. Sexual cannibalism is identified only in spiders. In which female organism kills the male before during or after copulation. In most species in which it occurs, sexual connibalism is related to the larger size of female due to sexual dimorphism.

Explanation: D. King cobra feeds on other snakes.

Explanation: C. Blood is slightly alkaline and the pH of blood varies from 7.35

Explanation: C. The liver secretes bile that forms and stores glycogen and plays an important role in metabolism of protein and fat. It does not contain digestive enzymes and as such does not take part directly in digestion.

Explanation: A. Echinda is a mammal that lay eggs.

Explanation: C. Gambusia affinis is a larvivorous fish. This fish is released into ponds and wells. It feeds on mosquito larvae, insects and crustaceans.

Explanation: C. Gibbon, Gorilla and Orangutan are apes, but Langur is not an ape, it is monkey.

Explanation: B. Argentina.

1. Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman.
2. Pulitzer Prize is awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation to a citizen of any Commonwealth country for any literary work in English.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. only 1.

Explanation: C. Japan.

Explanation: C. Johannesburg.

Explanation: A. Kavaratti.

Explanation: A. China.

Explanation: C. South Korea.

Explanation: B. Bretton woods Conference.

1. A. Nagender Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
2. B. A N Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
3. C. R. K Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
4. D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India

Codes:

Explanation: B. Ashok Desai was Attorney General of India (1996-98); Nagendra Singh was President of International Court of Justice (1985-88); AN Ray was CJI (1973-77); RK Trivedi was Chief Election Commissioner (1982-85).

Explanation: B. Its Goals include provision of access to electricity to all households by the year 2009, quality and reliable power supply at reasonable rates and minimum lifeline consumption of 1 unit/household/day as a merit good by year 2012.

Explanation: D. The Rig Veda manuscripts have been selected for inscription in UNESCO's "Memory of the World" Register 2007. The program for the 'Memory of the World' was started by the UNESCO to honor significant landmarks in the documentary heritage and record them in its 'Memory of the World Register' as world's inheritance.

1. A. K P Singh 1. Banking
2. B. Vikram Pandit 2. Fiction writing
3. C. Roopa Farooki 3. Retail business
4. D. Kishore Biyani 4. Real estate

Codes:

Explanation: D. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3.

Explanation: D. Administrative Reforms.

Explanation: A. Barak is an Israeli surface-to-air missile (SAM) designed to be used as a ship-borne point-defense missile system against aircraft, anti-ship missiles, and UAVs. India and Israel jointly developed and produced it.

Explanation: C. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) has developed the Dhruv advanced light helicopter (ALH), a light (5.5t class) multirole and multi-mission helicopter for army, air force, navy, coastguard and civil operations for both utility and attack roles by day and night.

Explanation: D. The Committee on Development of Bio-fuels setup by the Planning Commission in July, 2002, in its report of April, 2003, recommended launching of the National Commission on Bio-diesel. Ministry of Rural development was designated as the Nodal Ministry for this Mission.

1. A. Sabyasachi Mukherjee 1. Microfinance loans
2. B. Aniruddha Bahal 2. Pharmaceuticals
3. C. Vikram Akula 3. Fashion designing
4. D. Yusuf Hamied 4. Investigative journalism

Codes:

Explanation: B. Sabyasachi Mukherjee is an Indian fashion designer from Kolkata. Aniruddha Bahal is an Indian journalist, author, founder and editor of the online magazine Cobrapost.com. Vikram Akula is a pioneer in market-based approaches to financial inclusion. Yusuf Khwaja Hamied is an Indian scientist and chairman of Cipla.

Explanation: D. Ogaden region has been a source of conflict between Ethiopia and Somalia.

1. A. Foreign Intelligence Service 1. Israel
2. B. Ministry of State Security 2. Britain
3. C. Secret Intelligence Service 3. China
4. D. The Mossad 4. Russia

Codes:

Explanation: C. The Foreign Intelligence Service is Russia's external intelligence agency, mainly for civilian affairs. The Ministry of State Security (MSS) is the intelligence agency and security agency of the People's Republic of China. The Secret Intelligence Service(commonly known as MI6) is the British intelligence agency which supplies the British Government with foreign intelligence. Mossad is the national intelligence agency of Israel.

Explanation: A. Norman Ernest Borlaug was an American biologist who has been called "the father of the Green Revolution.

1. A. Amnesty International 1. Viskuli
2. B. Commonwealth of Independent States(CIS) 2. Paris
3. C. Danube Commission 3. Peter Benenson
4. D. Europe Space Agency 4. Belgrade Convention

Codes:

Explanation: A. A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2.

Explanation: B. The one barrel of crude consists of approximately 159 Liters.

1. Francis Collins : Mapping human genome
2. Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine
3. Jimmy Wales : Wikipedia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. All are correctly matched.