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UPSC Courses

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2007

1. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?

Explanation: A. The above provision has been added by 91st constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

2. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.

Explanation: D. Assertion is false, because the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only.

3. Consider the following statements:
  1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
  3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Terms of Jawahar Lal Nehru (1947-52; 1952-57; 1957-62; 1962-64). He died in 1964 during his 4th Prime-ministerial term. He represented Phulpur constituency in UP. The first non-congress PM of India was Morarji Desai (Janta Party) from 1977-1979.

4. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?

Explanation: B. GV Mavalankar (1952-56), Hukum Singh (1962-67); K.M. Munshi and U.N. Dhebar were never the Speakers of the Lok Sabha.

5. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
  1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
  2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Statement 1 is correct as under Article 360, any Proclamation of Financial Emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions Passed by both Houses of Parliament. If approved by both Houses, then it operates for 6 months. During the proclamation of financial emergency. President of India can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the union including the judges of supreme court and the High warts.

6. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and few eminent persons of industry and trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Statement 2 is incorrect as Public Accounts Committee consists of 22 members: 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

7. Consider the following statements:
  1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  2. Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

8. Consider the following statements:
  1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Statement 2 is incorrect. After retirement a permanent judge of High Court shall not plead or act in a Court or before any authority in India, except the SC and a HC other than the HC in which he had held his office (Art 220).

9. Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire?

Explanation: B. Dantidurga, a feudatory of Chalukyas, founded the Rastrakuta empire in 753 C E (AD) with their capital at Manyakhet.

10. Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?

Explanation: A. Sindhu was the old name of river Indus and Vitasta was the old name of River Jhelum. In persent time Takshashila situated in Pakistan.

11. With reference to the invaders in ancient India, which one of the following is the correct chronological order?

Explanation: A. Alexander (Greek, 326 B.C.E.); Sakas (90 B.C.E.); Kushanas (45 C.E.)

12. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
  2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were patrons of Buddhism.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/ are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as most of the inscriptions of the Andhra Ikshvaku period record either the construction of the Buddhist viharas or the gifts made to them which shows that the Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were supporters of Buddhism.

13. The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following?

Explanation: D. It was written by Samudragupta's court poet Harisena.

14. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?

Explanation: C. Vijaya Vittala temple is located at Hampi, the capital of Vijayanagar kingdom during the reign of Krishnadev Raya.

15. Who among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?

Explanation: B. It was started by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.

16. The ruler of which one of the following States was removed from power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance?

Explanation: A. Other three states were annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse by Lord Dalhousie. But doctrine of Lapse was not applicable on Awadh as Nawab Wazid Ali Shah had many children. Therefore, Dalhousie annexed Awadh on the pretext of misgovernance in 1856. Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854) and Satara (1848).

17. The First Factory Act restricting the working hours of women and children and authorizing local government to make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?

Explanation: C. The First Factory Act was passed in 1881 during the time of Lord Ripon. It was passed to improve the service condition of the factory workers in India. It fixed the working hours for women and children above the age of seven years.

18. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come to pre-independence India as traders?

Explanation: C. Portuguese (1498); Dutch (1602); English (1599); French (1664).

19. Consider the following statements:
  1. Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
  2. William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as Warren Hastings was the first governor-general of Bengal.

20. Which one of the following was the first fort constructed by the British in India?

Explanation: B. Fort William, Calcutta (1781); Fort St George, Chennai (1644); Fort St David, Madras(1670); Fort St Angelo, Kerala (1505) but by the Portuguese.

21. Who among the following wrote the book Bahubivah?

Explanation: B. It was written in protest of the evil of polygamy. Bahu (many or more than one)- bivah (marriage) meaning more than one marriage.

22. Assertion (A): According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim members in the Executive Council were to be equal. Reason (R): Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.

Explanation: C. Wavell Plan was proposed in Simla Conference in June 1945.

23. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh?

Explanation: C. Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April, 1919 during anti-Rowlatt agitation in Amritsar. Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919 which authorized the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law. Tagore renounced his Knighthood in protest against Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

24. At which one of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi first start his Satyagraha in India?

Explanation: C. Mahatma Gandhi first started his Satyagraha in India at Champaran in Bihar in 1917. He was requested by Rajkumar Shukla to look into the problems of poor peasants caused by the indigo planters of Chamaparan.

25. The song 'Amar Sonar Bangla' written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the liberation struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?

Explanation: D. The song was written in 1905 in Bangla. Rabindranath Tagore was the only person to write National Anthem of two countries, i.e. India and Bangladesh.

26. What is the average distance (approximate) between the sun and the earth?

Explanation: D. The actual average distance between the sun and the earth is 152

27. Consider the following statements:
  1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at about 30
  2. Horse latitudes are low pressure belts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The horse latitudes are located between latitude 30

28. Consider the following statements:
  1. Annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean.
  2. Annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern Hemisphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The maximum and minimum annual temperatures of Ocean water are recorded in August and February respectively in the northern hemisphere. The annual range of temperature is higher in the enclosed seas than in the open sea. The Atlantic Ocean records relatively higher annual range of temperature than the Pacific Ocean. Since the Northern hemisphere has more landmass as compared to the Southern hemisphere, the annual range of temperature will be greater in northern hemisphere.

29. Where is Copacabana Beach located?

Explanation: C. Copacabana Beach is located in Rio de Janeiro in Brazil.

30. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?

Explanation: D. London, Lisbon and Accra in Ghana are close to Greenwich Meridian. But, Addis Ababa is Situated on the eastern part of Africa (i.e., longitude 38.74 E). So, Addis Ababa has a different clock time than that of London, Lisbon and Accra.

31. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Bangkok 1. Irrawaddy
  2. B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong
  3. C. Hanoi 3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
  4. D. Yangon 4. Red River

Code:

Explanation: A. A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1.

32. Which one among the following rivers is the longest?

Explanation: A. Amazon is the longest river in the world. It originates from Andes mountain in Peru.

33. Through which one of the following Straits, does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France?

Explanation: C. Strait of Dover connects United Kingdom and France. It is about 32 km in length.

34. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries?

Explanation: A. The largest coral reef is the Great Barrier Reef, located just off the north-eastern coast of Australia. The 1200 mile (1900 km) long reef is protected as a Marine Park.

35. In which one of the following districts, have large reserves of diamond-bearing Kimberlite been discovered in the recent past?

Explanation: B. Payali and Behradein in Raipur, Chhattisgarh has large reserves of diamond bearing kimberlite. It has 28% of the total diamond reserve of India.

36. With reference to the steel industry in India in the recent times, consider the following statements:
  1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared a Mini Ratna.
  2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Vizag Steel Plant was declared as a Mini Ratna company on 11th Feb 2006. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed on 29th September 2004.

37. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects which of the following?

Explanation: B. The Stilwell Road built in 1940s by Americans to connect Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar during Second World War.

38. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

Explanation: D. Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park is known as top slip. It is a part of Western Ghats is located above 300 metres from the sea level on the Anamalai mountain ranges.

39. Where are Shevaroy hills located?

Explanation: D. Shevaroy hill is situated near Salem of Tamil Nadu. This hill range covers an area of fifty square kilometers.

40. Assertion (A): River Kalinadi is an east-flowing river in the southern part of India. Reason (R): The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the east.

Explanation: D. River Kalinadi is a west flowing river in the southern part of India. So, the assertion is wrong. Deccan Plateau has elevation ranging from 1,500 to 2,500 ft and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the east. So, the reason is correct.

41. Which one of the following National Highways passes through Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Orissa?

Explanation: C. National Highways passes through Gujarat, Maharashtra, Chhatisgarh, Orissa, Jharkhand and West Bengal. This road is 1,949 km long.

42. Consider the following statements:
  1. Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
  2. Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Balaghat of Madhya Pradesh is known for its manganese mines. Majhgawan is famous for diamond.

43. Which one of the following rivers originates in Amarkantak?

Explanation: C. The Narmada river originates from a tank 1057 m high west of Amarkantak plateau in Madhya Pradesh. River Damodar originates from Chhota Nagpur plateau, Mahanadi originates from Bastar plateau and Tapti originates from Satpura hills.

44. Which one among the following major Indian cities is most eastward located?

Explanation: C. Lucknow is the city most east in the list.

45. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?

Explanation: C. Both Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian states.

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. BALCO 1. Hirakud
  2. B. HINDALCO 2. Korba
  3. C. Indian Aluminium Company 3. Koraput
  4. D. NALCO 4. Renukoot

Code:

Explanation: B. A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

47. Which one of the following is located in the Bastar region?

Explanation: D. Indravati National Park is located in the Bastar region. The park is situated at the distance of 97.4 km Bastar.

48. In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak located?

Explanation: A. Guru Shikhar Peak is the highest point in Rajasthan. The altitude of peak 5676 feet (1722 mt).

49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Betul 1. Indravati
  2. B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
  3. C. Jabalpur 3. Shipra
  4. D. Ujjain 4. Tapti

Code:

Explanation: B. A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3.

50. Consider the following statements:
  1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the Western Himalayas only.
  2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North East.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Red Panda is found in mountains of Nepal, northeastern India, China, Bhutan and Slow Loris lives in dense forest of north-east, dense forest of Assam. Red Panda is found in Eastern Himalayas, China, Bhuan and slow loris in the dense forest of north-east Assam.

51. Which one among the following States of India has the lowest density of population?

Explanation: C. Population density of Arunachal Pradesh is 13, Himachal Pradesh is 109, Meghalaya is 103, and Sikkim is 76.

52. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production (in million tones) of the given foodgrains in India?

Explanation: D. Production of rice is 96.43 MT, wheat is 78.4 MT, pulses is 15.11 MT and coarse cereals are 40.73 MT in India. So, the correct sequence in decreasing order is Rice

53. Assertion (A): There are no tea plantations in any African country. Reason (R): Tea plants need fertile soil with high humus.

Explanation: D. In the 20th century tea was being grown in 3 African countries like Tanzania, Kenya and Uganda. So, the assertion is wrong. But the reason is correct because tea plants need highly organic or loamy soils.

54. Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the following?

Explanation: D. Rosewood is associated with Dalbergia species. Dalbergia species are used as food plants and fragnant wood in aromatic oils.

55. Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave

Explanation: C. Bhoodan Movement was a voluntary land reform movement in India started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave on April 18, 1951 started at Pochampalli village, in Telangana (Andhra Pardesh).

56. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?

Explanation: A. Contribution of different sectors to national income. Services

57. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?

Explanation: B. Participatory Notes (PNs / P-Notes) are instruments used by investors or hedge funds that are not registered with the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) to invest in Indian securities. Participatory notes are instruments that derive their value from an underlying financial instrument such as an equity share and, hence, the word, 'derivative instruments'. SEBI permitted FIIs to register and participate in the Indian stock market in 1992.

58. Consider the following statements:
  1. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
  2. A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income for everyone in its population.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Repo Rate is the rate at which commercial banks borrow funds from RBI. A reduction in the repo rate will help banks to get money from the central bank at a cheaper rate. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. A value of (0) for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfect equality in the system. If the value is 1 then there is complete inequality in the country.

59. The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of which one of the following?

Explanation: B. National Housing Bank has been set up under the National Housing Bank Act of 1987, which was passed on 9th July, 1988. It is wholly owned by the Reserve bank of India and was created to encourage housing, finance institutions and provide them with financial support.

60. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum?

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

61. Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively up to an equal height. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first?

Explanation: D. Viscocity of Kerosene is least among all, so it will emptied first.

62. Consider the following statements:
  1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have red colour.
  2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have blue colour.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Combination of red and blue colour results into formation of magenta colour. Whereas combination of red and green colour results in to formation of yellow colour. Thus on combination of magenta and yellow colour red colour will be highlighted. On the other side combination of blue and green results into formation of cyan colour. Combination of red and blue colour produce magenta colour. Therefore, on combination of cyan and magenta colours blue colour will be more highlighted.

63. Consider the following statements:
  1. A flute of smaller length produces waves of lower frequency.
  2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal elastic waves only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. The flute is a musical instrument of the woodwind family. A flute of smaller length produces waves of higher frequency. Sound waves travels through medium rocks in the form of longitudinal as well as transverse waves.

64. Assertion (A): A jet aircraft moving at Mach Number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than while moving at Mach Number equal to 1 near the sea level. Reason (R): The velocity of sound depends on the temperature of the surrounding medium.

Explanation: D. Mach number, a useful quantity in aerodynamics, is the ratio of air speed to the local speed of sound. The speed of sound varies with temperature. Since temperature and sound velocity normally decrease with increasing altitude, sound is refracted upward. Mach number is a function of temperature at altitude. With decrease in sound velocity Mach number increases.

65. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays?

Explanation: D. Crookes glass is a type of glass that contains cerium and other rare earths and has a high absorption of ultraviolet radiation used in sunglasses.

66. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?

Explanation: B. Selenium.

67. Which one among the following is called philosopher's wool?

Explanation: C. Philosopher's wool is a oxide of zinc a white powder used as a pigment, cosmetics, glass, inks and in zinc ointment.

68. Which one of the following does not contain silver?

Explanation: B. German silver has a color resembling silver, but is an alloy of primarily copper, nickel and zinc. Chlorargyrite is the mineral form of silver chloride (AgCl). It is also known as horn silver. Proustite is a sulfosalt mineral consisting of silver sulfarsenide, Ag3AsS3, known also as light red silver or ruby silver ore, and an important source of the metal. Silver nitrate is an inorganic compound with chemical formula AgNO3. It was once called lunar caustic because silver was called luna by the ancient alchemists.

69. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?

Explanation: D. RDX, an initialism for Research Department Explosive, is an explosive nitroamine widely used in military and industrial applications. It is also known less commonly as cyclonite. Its chemical name is cyclotrimethylene trinitramine.

70. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant becomes modified into a pitcher?

Explanation: B. In pitcher plant, the lamina of leaf is modified into pitcher and the leaf apex gives rise to a coloured lid for attracting the insects.

71. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants?

Explanation: B. Photosynthesis occurs between wavelengths of about 400 nm and 750 nm. Red and blue colour wavelength is categories in this wavelength. So, plants absorb these colours. Photosynthesis does not occur in the infra-red or in ultraviolet light.

72. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?

Explanation: B. Robert Webster is a scientist, his interests include the structure and function of influenza virus proteins and development of new vaccines and antivirals.

73. In the human body, which structure is the appendix attached to?

Explanation: A. Appendix is attached to the first portion of large intestine. The appendix has no function in modern human.

74. In human body, which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium and phosphate?

Explanation: C. Parathyroid hormone secrets from parathyroid gland. This hormone regulates calcium and phosphate level in blood. Parathyroid hormone raises the level of calcium in the blood and decreases the level of phosphorous in the blood.

75. How do most insects respire?

Explanation: D. Most insects respire through tracheal system that lies on a network of small tubes that channel O2 directly to the different part of the body. The tracheal system is composed of chitin-ringed tubes called trachea that connect directly to the air through opening in the body wall called spiracles.

76. In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts, does the sperm fertilize the ovum?

Explanation: B. Fallopian tube is a tube like structure that carries egg from the ovary to uterus. In this tube the sperm meets to ovum and fertilization occurs.

77. Which one of the following parts of the human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?

Explanation: C. The bottom part of the brain stem is called the Medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata has nerve centres to control many vital body processes like swallowing, vomiting, breathing and heart beat etc.

78. Production of which one of the following is a function of the liver?

Explanation: B. Urea is the main nitrogenous excretory product of Ureotelic animals, produced by liver cells from de-aminated excess amino-acids via the urea cycle.

79. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?

Explanation: B. Gastrin is a hormone, which stimulates secretion of digestive enzyme in stomach. Trypsin, Pepsin and Ptyalin are the digestive enzymes of human system.

80. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body?

Explanation: D. The correct sequence in the order of decreasing length of the three structural parts are Ileum

81. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
  1. V P Singh
  2. R Venkataraman
  3. Y B Chavan
  4. Pranab Mukherjee

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: D. VP Singh (1985-87), R Venkataraman (1980-82), YB Chavan (1971-75), Pranab Mukherjee (1982-85 ;Feb 2009-present).

82. Consider the following statements:
  1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
  2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Twelve countries were part of the founding of NATO: Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom and the United States. The North Atlantic Treaty Organization is also called the North Atlantic Alliance, is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty which was signed on 4 April 1949.

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
  2. B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, US House of Representatives
  3. C. Pascal Lamy 3. WHO
  4. D. Steve Ballmer 4. Microsoft

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4.

84. With reference to the international meetings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
  1. NAM Summit : Havana
  2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
  3. EU - India Summit : Helsinki
  4. UN Climate Change : Geneva Conference

Codes:

Explanation: B. 14th Nam Summit was held in Havana(Cuba) from 15-16 September 2006.The 17th EU India summit was held in Helsinkion 13 October 2006. 14th APEC Summit was held on 18-19 November 2006 in Hanoi(Vietnam). The 2006 United Nations Climate Change Conference took place between November 6 and 17, 2006 in Nairobi, Kenya.

85. Who among the following is Chile's first woman President?

Explanation: B. Michelle Bachelet was the first female president of Chile from 2006 to 2014.In December 2013, Bachelet was re-elected as President of Chile with over 62% of the vote. She is the first person since 1932 to win the presidency of Chile twice in competitive elections.

86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Chevron 1. Wind energy
  2. B. AT & T 2. Oil
  3. C. AMD 3. Telephone, Internet
  4. D. Enercon GmbH 4. Microprocessor

Codes:

Explanation: C. Chevron Corporation is an American multinational energy corporationand one of the successor companies of Standard Oil headquartered in California. AT and T Inc. is an American multinational telecommunications corporation, headquartered at Whitacre Tower in downtown Dallas, Texas. Advanced Micro Devices, Inc. is an American worldwide semiconductor company based in Sunnyvale, California, United States, that develops computer processors. Enercon GmbH is the fourth-largest wind turbine manufacturer in the world based in Germany.

87. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Nick was appointed as a lecturer in Bioengineering at Southampton University in January 2011.

88. Yom Kippur War was fought between which sides countries?

Explanation: C. The Yom Kippur War, also known as the 1973 Arab-Israeli War, was a war fought by the coalition of Arab states led by Egypt and Syria against Israel from October 6 to 25, 1973.

89. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?

Explanation: C. "Tim" Berners-Lee is best known as the inventor of the World Wide Web.

90. Where are the headquarters of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?

Explanation: B. The Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nations. Its headquarters is situated in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.

91. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known as

Explanation: C. Gabriel Garcia Marquez was a Colombian novelist, short-story writer, screenwriter and journalist. He was awarded with Nobel Prize in Literature in 1982.

92. Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?

Explanation: C. The Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs is an international organization that brings together scholars and public figures to work toward reducing the danger of armed conflict and to seek solutions to global security threats. It was founded in 1957 by Joseph Rotblat and Bertrand Russell in Pugwash, Nova Scotia, Canada.

93. Consider the following statements:
  1. The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 (approximately).
  2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of that of the A0 size paper.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Correct option is D.

94. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. A.M. Khusro was Chairman of eleventh Finance Commission of India.

95. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full States of the Indian Union?

Explanation: B. Nagaland-1962, Haryana-1966, Sikkim-1975, Arunachal Pradesh-1986.

96. In which one of the following cities is the Global Automotive Research Centre being set up?

Explanation: A. The Global Automotive Research Center (GARC), Chennai, is situated in the SIPCOT Industrial Growth Center at Orgadam near Chennai in the close proximity of manufacturing facility of Indian and Global automotive giants.

97. Who among the following served as the Chief Economist of the International Monetary Fund?

Explanation: D. Raghuram Govind Rajan is currently the Eric J. Gleacher Distinguished Service Professor of Finance at the Booth School of Business at the University of Chicago. He is also an honorary economic adviser to Prime Minister of India Manmohan Singh (appointed 2008). He previously was the chief economist of the International Monetary Fund and headed a committee appointed by the Planning Commission on financial reforms in India.

98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
  1. A. Bhajan Sopori l. Bharatnatyam dancer
  2. B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
  3. C. Priyadarsini 3. Mridangam maestro
  4. D. TV Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3.

99. Who among the following wrote the book

Explanation: B. P V Narasimha Rao.

100. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?

Explanation: C. The Pulitzer Prize is an award for achievements in newspaper and online journalism, literature, and musical composition in the United States. It was established in 1917 by provisions in the will of American (Hungarian-born) publisher Joseph Pulitzer and is administered by Columbia University in New York City.

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