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UPSC Courses

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2005

1. Consider the following statements:
  1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
  2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Option A is correct.

2. Consider the following statements:
  1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunchal Pradesh and Goa.
  2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
  3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Article 371 A to I deals with special provisions to -Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. The Constitution of India envisages a single policy for both Union and the States. A naturalized citizen is one who acquires citizenship either by Naturalization or by Registration. They can be deprived of citizenship if they acquired citizenship by using fraudulent means.

3. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:

Explanation: B. The Constitution 98th Amendment Bill, 2003, seeks to constitute a National Judicial Commission (NJC) by including Chapter IV-A in Part V of the Constitution which will be in charge of appointing judges to the higher judiciary and for transferring High Court Judges.

4. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
  2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
  3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The Constitution of India has 24 parts, 12 schedules and more than 444 articles at present. In the original constitution, there were 22 parts, 8 schedules and 395 articles. Ninth Schedule was added by 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Tenth Schedule was added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. Eleventh Schedule was added by 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

5. Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

Explanation: C. Chairman of different Committees of Constituent Assembly: Union Power Committee

6. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?

Explanation: C. Food and Nutrition Board works under Ministry of Women and Child Development. It is a technical support wing under Child Development Bureau of the Ministry. None of the given options is correct.

7. Consider the following:
  1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
  2. Motor accident cases
  3. Pension cases

For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?

Explanation: D. Option D is correct.

8. Consider the following statements:
  1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
  2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
  3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. There were 21 High Courts in India with three new states created in 2000, having their own High Courts (Chattisgarh at Bilaspur, Uttarakhand at Nainital and Jharkhand at Ranchi). Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh have a common HC at Chandigarh. In the year 2013, three new High Courts in the northeast - Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura were created taking the total number of High Courts in the country from 21 to 24. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own which was established in the year 1966. As if 2018. There are 24 High courts in India.

9. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
  2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement (1) is not correct as according to Article 138(1) of the Constitution, Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction and powers of the SC w.r.t. to any of the matters in the Union List. Whereas SC

10. Consider the following statements:
  1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
  2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
  3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitutional Amendment

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Article 301 pertains to Freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse. In the original constitution right to property was a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1) (f). But 44th Amendment Act, 1978 omitted sub clause f, and inserted Article 300A to make right to property a legal right.

11. Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?

Explanation: C. Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. Magdha empire came into prominence under him. He was a contemporary of the Buddha. He strengthened his position by marriage alliances. His first wife was the sister of Prasenjit (son of king of Koshala) who was also contemporary of the Buddha.

12. Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 belong to?

Explanation: A. Kunwar Singh belonged to a royal Ujjaini house of Jagdispur, currently a part of Bhojpur district, Bihar state.

13. Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of 1857?

Explanation: B. Leader: Jhansi - Rani Laxmibai; Lucknow

14. Consider the following statements:
  1. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women.
  2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University.
  3. Keshav Chandra Sen's campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the Governor General.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 3 is incorrect as Raja Ram Mohan Roy's campaign against Sati led to the enactment of Bengal Regulation Act of 1829 to ban Sati by Governor- General William Bentick. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and Gattunath Bose were the first graduates of the Calcutta University on Jan 30, 1858. JED Bethune founded the Bethune School in Calcutta in 1849. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was also associated with this. That's why the best possible answer here is option (B).

15. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?

Explanation: B. Lord Lytton brought Vernacular Press Act came in to force in 1878. It was repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.

16. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Explanation: B. Modern Kochi became a part of the British colony after being a Dutch colony. Kochi was first a Portuguese colony. Fort Williams was built in Kochi by the Dutch.

17. Consider the following statements:
  1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
  2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773
  3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as Lord Curzon was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern. A Supreme Court was established at Fort Williams by the Regulating Act, 1773 with jurisdiction over Bengal, Bihar and Orissa.

18. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battles fought in India in the 18th Century?

Explanation: B. Battle of Ambur-1749, Battle of Plassey-1757, Battle of Wandiwash-1760, Battle of Buxar-1764.

19. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?

Explanation: A. The Fabian Society is a British socialist intellectual movement best known for its initial ground breaking work beginning in the late 19th century and then up to World War I. Fabianism focused on the advancement of socialist ideas through gradual influence and patiently insinuating socialist ideology into intellectual circles and groups with power.

20. Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the outbreak of the World War I based?

Explanation: B. Ghadr revolutionaries were based in San Francisco (North America) and branches along the US Coast and in the far East.

21. Consider the following statements: On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement, Mahatma Gandhi:
  1. asked the government servants to resign.
  2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts.
  3. asked the Princes of the Princely states to accept the sovereignty of their own people.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Gandhiji asked the government servants not to resign but declare their allegiance to the Congress. Soldiers were asked not to leave their posts but not to fire.

22. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed under the Act of 1935?

Explanation: D. Congress ministeries were formed in Bombay, Madras, Central Provinces, Orissa, United Provinces, Bihar and later in NWFP and Assam also.

23. At which Congress session was the working committee authorised to launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?

Explanation: B. At Lahore session (1929, President - J.L. Nehru) the working committee was authorised to launch a programme of Civil Disobedience.

24. In October 1920, who headed a group of Indians gathered at Tashkent to set up a communist party of India?

Explanation: D. The other prominent persons include Abani Mukherjee and Mohd. Ali Mohd. Shafiq.

25. Who drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for the Karachi session of Congress in 1931?

Explanation: B. Nehru drafted the resolution on Fundamental Rights. The Karachi Session was presided over by Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel.

26. Who among the following was not associated with the formation of U.P. Kisan Sabha in February 1918?

Explanation: C. UP Kisan Sabha was founded by Indra Narayani Dwivedi and Gauri Shankar Misra in 1918. MM Malviya supported their efforts.

27. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Champaran : Rajendra Prasad
  2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers : Morarji Desai
  3. Kheda : Vallabhai Patel

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: C. Champaran (First Civil Disobedience)

28. Consider the following statements:
  1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when the Shimla conference took place.
  2. Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Statement 1 is incorrect as Lord Wavell was the Viceroy when Shimla Conference took place in June, 1945.

29. Consider the following statements:
  1. In the First Round Table Conference, Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes.
  2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made.
  3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. First Round Table Conference was held from Nov, 1930 - Jan 1931. Second Round Table Conference was held in Dec 1931 in London. Third Round Table Conference was held from Nov 1932 - Dec 1932. Indian National Congress did not participate in first and third RTC. Poona Pact was signed by B.R. Ambedkar in September, 1932. The pact abandoned separate electorates for the depressed classes. But the seats reserved for the depressed classes were increased in provincial as well as Central legislatures.

30. Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?

Explanation: D. Forward Bloc was founded on May 3, 1939. It was a left-wing nationalist political party with its stronghold in West Bengal.

31. Consider the following statements: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for:
  1. the provincial autonomy
  2. the establishment of a Federal court.
  3. all India Federation at the centre

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. Provincial Autonomy replaced Diarchy. All India Federation was to comprise all British Indian provinces, all chief commissioner's provinces and Indian states.

32. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?

Explanation: B. Volcanic mountain. St. Helen is located in United States of America.

33. Assertion (A): The same face of the moon is always presented to the earth. Reason (R): The moon rotates about its own axis in 23 and half days which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the earth.

Explanation: C. The moon rotates about its own axis in 27.322 days. When the Moon first formed, its rotational speed and orbit were very different than they are now. Over time, the Earth's gravitational field gradually slowed the Moon's rotation until the orbital period and the rotational speed stabilized, making one side of the moon always face the Earth.

34. Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable. Reason (R): Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

Explanation: A. The atmosphere of Venus is composed primarily of carbon dioxide and much denser and hotter than that of Earth. The atmosphere of Venus supports opaque clouds made of sulfuric acid, making optical Earth-based and orbital observation of the surface impossible.

35. Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. Reason (R): The directions of wind patterns in the Northern and the Southern Hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis effect.

Explanation: A. is true as the direction of wind in the northern hemisphere is clock wise and in southern hemisphere it is anti clock wise. The explanation is correct as this is mainly due to coriolis effect.

36. Where are the Balearic Islands located?

Explanation: A. The Balearic Islands are an archipelago of Spain in the Western Mediterranean sea, near the eastern coast of the Iberian peninsula.

37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Managua is the capital of Nicaragua, not Balmopan. Balmopan is the capital city of Balize.

38. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Axis of the earth's magnetic field is inclined at 23 and half to the geographic axis of the earth.
  2. The earth's magnetic pole in the Northern Hemisphere is located on a Peninsula in Northern Canada.
  3. The earth's magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Earth magnetic field is inclined between

39. Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania?

Explanation: B. Ukraine is a sovereign state in Eastern Europe, bordered by Russia to the east and north east; Belarus to the north west; Poland, Hungary and Slovakia to the west; Romania and Moldova to the south west; and the Black Sea and Sea of Agov to the South.

40. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of Pakistan while moving from the north towards the south?

Explanation: C. While moving from the North to South Pakistan, the correct sequence of the towns is Peshawar

41. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
  1. A. Washington, D.C. 1. River Manzanares
  2. B. Berlin 2. River Seine
  3. C. Paris 3. River Spree
  4. D. Madrid 4. River Potomac

Codes:

Explanation: D. Correct option is D.

42. Consider the following statements:
  1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
  2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom. .

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The total area of United Kingdom is 94, 226 sq miles (244, 044 sq km), where England covers 50, 344 sq miles (130, 365 sq km) i.e. less than 60 % of total land area of United Kingdom. Great Britain donot comprise of Northern Ireland.

43. Itaipu Dam built on the river Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which of the following two countries have this as a joint project?

Explanation: C. Itaipu Dam is built on River Parana is the largest dam in the world. This is a joint project of Brazil

44. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land?

Explanation: B. The decreasing order of arrangement of continent according to the percentage of Earth's land is Africa (29800000 sq km), North America (21510000 sq km) South America (17598000 sq km) and Europe (9699550 sq km).

45. Consider the following statements:
  1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
  2. The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one third of the area of India under tree forest cover.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitute around 2.54%; very dense forest and 8.77% are moderately dense forest. National Forestry Action Programme aims a long term plan to achieve the target of 33% forest cover.

46. Consider the following statements:
  1. Area-wise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
  2. According to the population Census 2001, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Area of Chhattisgarh is 1,36,03489 km and Area of West Bengal is 88,572 sq km but the population density in Chhattigarh is 154, whereas the population density in West Bengal is 904.

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

Explanation: D. A-3; B-1; C-2; D-5.

48. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Explanation: B. Bulk of the tribal population is found in 5 states, i.e., Madhaya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, Gujarat and Bihar.

49. Consider the following statements:
  1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme.
  2. The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 2010 with a population of 111 crores.
  3. Kerala is the first state in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Family Planning programme was started in 1952 by Government of India. Kerala is the first state in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.

50. Which one of the following statements is true on the basis of Census - 2001?

Explanation: D. Pondicherry, a Union Territory, has the sex ratio of 1001. Chandigarh has 777, Delhi has 861, Daman and Diu has 710, Dadra and Nagar Haveli has 812

51. According to the census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?

Explanation: B. According to 2001 census, Maharashtra had the maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh. The total population in Maharashtra is 193,977,000.

52. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Explanation: A. Western Ghats are are relationship higher in the Southern region.

53. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?

Explanation: A. Gandhi Sagar Dam is situated on the river Chambal in 1960, near Bhanpura of Madhya Pradesh.

54. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of hills starting from the north and going towards the south?

Explanation: C. The correct sequence of the given hills starting from north and going towards to south is Nallamalai Hills, Javadi Hills, Nilgiri Hills, Anamalai Hills

55. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere reserve?

Explanation: B. Nallamalai is not a biosphere reserve. It is hill of Eastern ghats which stretches over Kurnool, Mahabubnagar, Guntur and Kadapa districts of the state of Andhra Pradesh.

56. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of Indian cities in the decreasing order, of their normal annual rainfall?

Explanation: C. The correct sequence of the given Indian cities in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall is Kochi (3228.3 mm)

57. Which of the following states border Uttar Pradesh?
  1. Punjab
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Chhattisgarh
  4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Uttar Pradesh is bounded by Haryana, Delhi, Rajasthan in west; Madhya Pradesh in the south and Bihar in the east. The northern boundary is with Nepal.

58. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
  1. A. Kothagudem 1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. B. Raichur 2. Gujarat
  3. C. Mettur 3. Karnataka
  4. D. Wanakbori 4. Tamil Nadu

Codes:

Explanation: B. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2.

59. Consider the following statements:
  1. Silent Valley National Park in the Nallamalai range.
  2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
  3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Silent Valley National Park is situated in Nilgiri Hills of Western Ghats. The park is bound by Attappadi reserved forest to the east and vested forest of Palaghat division and Nilamber division to the south-west respectively.

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1.

61. Consider the following sites /monuments:
  1. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
  2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
  3. Mahallapuram
  4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple)

Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?

Explanation: D. All the monuments / sites are included in World Heritage list of UNESCO. Sun Temple of Orissa, group of monuments at Mahabalipuram were included in 1985. Champaner

62. Consider the following statements:
  1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
  2. Singapore regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomic analysis and policy and related subject as a part of programme of the IMF institute.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. In 1999, the IMF established the Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) to make the objectives of poverty reduction and growth more central to lending operations in its poorest member countries.

63. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Explanation: A. Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP) is the first intergrated steel plant in the public sector in India. It was set up with German collaboration with an installed capacity of 1 million tonnes.

64. Consider the following statements:
  1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay stock Exchange (BSE).
  2. For calculating the Sensex, all the stock are assigned proportional weightage.
  3. New York Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The 'BSE SENSEX' is a value-weighted index composed of 30 stocks and was started in 1 January, 1986. The origin of the NYSE can be traced to 17 May, 1792. Amsterdam stock exchange (1602) is considered oldest in the world and was established by the Dutch East India company.

65. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?

Explanation: B. Density of gold is 19.30 g/cm3. The density of ultra pure liquid mercury is 13.534 g/cm3 and the density of steel is 7.80 g/cm3.

66. What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body (dry)?

Explanation: B. Human body has different resistance when human body dry then the resistance is 105 ohms, and when human body wet because of water or sweet then the resistance is 1000 ohms, so for dry skin the resistance is 104 ohms. Hence option (B) is correct.

67. Consider the following statements:
  1. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
  2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
  3. Natural gas liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Liquified Natural Gas or LNG is natural gas (predominantly methane, CH4) that has been converted temporarily to liquid form for ease of storage or transport. The liquefaction process involves removal of certain components, such as dust, acid gases, helium, water, and heavy hydrocarbons, which could cause difficulty downstream. The natural gas is then condensed into a liquid maximum transport pressure set at around 25 kPa/3.6 psi by cooling it to approximately

68. Assertion (A): The main constituent of the liquefied petroleum gas is methane. Reason (R): Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.

Explanation: D. Varieties of LPG bought and sold include mixes that are primarily propane and butane, the common, mixes include propane (60%) and butane (40%), depending on the season in winter more propane, in summer more butane. Propylene and butylenes are usually also present in small concentration. A powerful odorant, ethane thiol, is added so that leaks can be detected easily. Methane is a chemical compound with the chemical formula (CH4). Compared to other hydrocarbon fuels, burning methane produces less carbon dioxide for each unit of heat released. In many cities, methane is piped into homes for domestic heating and cooking purposes. Methane in the form of compressed natural gas is used as a vehicle fuel. Methane is used in industrial chemical processes for the production of hydrogen, methanol, acetic acid, and acetic anhydride, also used as a fuel in factories.

69. Consider the following statements:
  1. Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
  2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of dengue.
  3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of dengue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Dengue viruses are transmitted to humans through the bites of infective female Aedes mosquito. The symptoms of disease is characterized by high fever, severe muscle pain, joint pain and rashes in body.

70. Which of the following diseases of milching animals are infectious?
  1. Foot and mouth disease
  2. Anthrax
  3. Black Quarter
  4. Cowpox

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. All are infectious diseases.

71. Assertion (A): All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only. Reason (R): The protein-digesting enzyme from pancreas are released into small intestine.

Explanation: D. Assertion is false because protein digestion occurs in stomach and small intestine. But reason is true because the proteolytic enzyme from pancreas secretion immediately enters to small intestine from the stomach.

72. Assertion (A): Amoeba reproduces by fission. Reason (R): All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods.

Explanation: A. Assertion is correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Amoeba is a unicellular animal. It reproduce by the process of asexual reproduction. Fission is one of the processes of asexual reproduction, where amoeba divides in half to produce off spring.

73. Assertion (A): The person with Diabetes insipidus feels thirsty. Reason (R): A person with Diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.

Explanation: C. Assertion is correct but the reason is false. Deficiency of vasopressin results Diabetes insipidus. In this disease the patients produce enormous quantities of dilute urine and the patient consequently feels thirsty.

74. Pneumoconiosis affects the workers who work mainly in

Explanation: B. Pneumoconiosis is a respiratory disease caused by the inhaling various type of dust, such as coal dust, silica dust, asbestos dust etc. So, it is very common in workers of coal mining industries and related industries.

75. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Headquarters of the International Organisation for standardization are located in Rome.
  2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
  3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The HQ of ISO is Geneva, Switzerland.

76. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?

Explanation: B. China is not a member of ASEAN. It is a part of ASEAN + 3.

77. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in year 1810.
  2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representative of the US Congress.
  3. George W. Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America. Whose father was also the President of the United States of America.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The Constitution of USA came in to force in 1787. In the history of USA, John Adams and John Quincy Adams, and George H.W. Bush and George W. Bush are the two father - son duos who have been the President of USA.

78. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly
  2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
  3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is state Duma.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Only statement (1) is correct as statements 2 and 3 are mismatched. Federation Council is Upper House of Russian Parliament and State Duma is the Lower House. Both are located in Moscow.

79. Match items in the List-I (country) with those in the List-II (Name of Parliament) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
  1. A. Netherlands 1. Diet
  2. B. Ukraine 2. States General
  3. C. Poland 3. Supreme Council
  4. D. Japan 4. Sejm

Codes:

Explanation: B. States General is the lower house of the bicameral parliament of the Netherlands. The Supreme council i.e. Verkhovna Rada is the Parliament of Ukraine. The Sejm of republic of Poland is the lower house of the Polish Parliament. The National Diet is Japan

80. Consider the following statements:
  1. The man Booker prize is awarded to citizen of any of the countries of the British common wealth or the Republic of Ireland.
  2. A leading London based software company underwrites the man Booker Prize presently.
  3. The winner of the man Booker Prize in year 2004 is a South Asian.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The Man Booker Prize is a literary Prize awarded each year for the best original novel written in the English language and published in UK from its inception, only novels written by commonwealth, Irish and South African citizens were eligible to receive the prize; in 2014, however, this eligibility was widened to any English language novel. The winner of the man Booker Prize in year 2004 was Alan Hollinghurst who belonged to United Kingdom. The Man Booker Prize is awarded by Man Group.

81. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.
  2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
  3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan Italy after the second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time.

Which of the statements given above is are correct? .

Explanation: C. Statement (1) is not correct. The charter of UNO was adopted at San Francisco in June 1945.

82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Ghana and Dutch Guiana are not related to each other.

83. In which country is Bandung, where the conference of African and Asian nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM); situated?

Explanation: C. In Indonesia the conference of African and Asian nations was held which established to Non-aligned movement.

84. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?

Explanation: D. Tamil is the major language in Singapore

85. capital of the given country (Country given in the brackets)?

Explanation: B. Karachi was the capital of Pakistan from 1947

86. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: A. Seikan Rail Tunnel is world's longest tunnel with length of 34 miles is located in Japan. Seikan railway tunnel is Japan's 53.85 km long tunnel beneath the Tsugaru Strait and connects the Aomori Prefecture on Honshu Island and the Hokkaido Island. With its track located 140m below the seabed, the Seikan tunnel is the world's deepest and longest railway tunnel.

87. For which one of the following countries is Spanish not an official language?

Explanation: C. French is the official language of Republic of Congo, not Spanish. But spanish is the official language of chile, Columbia nad Cuba.

88. What was Komagata Maru?

Explanation: C. Komagata Maru was a Japanese ship carrying passengers from Singapore to Vancouver. The ship was anchored at Calcutta in September 1914.

89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. John Major Conservative Party

90. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?

Explanation: D. Since, 1910 as the seat of Parliament, Cape Town has been the legislative capital of South Africa, Pretoria the Administrative capital and Bloemfontein the Judicial Capital.

91. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: C. Armoured corps centre and school is located at Ahmednagar, Maharashtra.

92. For which one of the following, is Satara well known?

Explanation: A. Satara is well known for Thermal Power Plant.

93. Consider the following statements.
  1. The number of post office in India is in excess of 1 lakh
  2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997.
  3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. India has world's largest postal network with 1,55,837 post office (1,39,280 in rural areas). A post office serves an area of 21.09 sq kms and population of 6,602. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 2000 and Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 1997.

94. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
  1. Champadevi Sukla : Goldman Environmental Prize
  2. Dr. P. Sri Ramachanrudu : Vachaspati Puraskar.
  3. Ela Ramesh Bhatt : Lal Bahadur Shastri NationalAward for Excellence in Public Administration, Academic and Management.
  4. Upamanyu Chatterjee : Lalit Kala Ratna Award.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: B. Upamanyu Chatterjee is the winner of Shaitya Award winner and not Lalit Kala Award winner.

95. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
  1. A. Sportstars 1. The Hindu Publication Group
  2. B. Business-World 2. ABP Group
  3. C. The Week 3. Malayala Manorama Publication Group
  4. D. Reader's Digest 4. Indian Express Publication Group

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

96. Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?

Explanation: D. The Liberhan Commission was commissioned by the Government of India to investigate the destruction of the disputed structure Babri Masjid in Ayodhya in 1992.

97. Whose autobiography is the book 'My Music, My Life'?

Explanation: A. 'My Music, My life' is the autobiography of Pandit Ravi Shankar.

98. Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a public limited company?

Explanation: B. Cochin International Airport is an international airport in the city of Kochi, in the state of Kerala. It is the first airport in India developed under a publicprivate partnership.

99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Explanation: B. Phalcon is radar system provided by Israel to India.

100. Who among the following is not recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?

Explanation: D. Lata Mangeshkar 2001, Bismillah Khan 2001, and Satyajit Ray 1992.

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