Explanation: A. Article 257 in the Constitution states that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. Article 258: Power of the Union to confer powers on the States in certain cases; Article 355: Duty of the Union to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance; Article 358: Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies.

1. A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term
2. B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
3. C. Article 16 3. Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden
4. D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State

Codes:

Explanation: C. These are Fundamental rights under Part III of the Constitution.

Explanation: A. Article 24 of the constitution states that, no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Explanation: A. Appropriation Bill is a money bill. In case of money bill, RS has only recommendatory power and need not to be passed by RS.

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political, parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election disputes

Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

Explanation: A. The High Court (and not the Election Commission) is the final authority to give a final verdict in case of election disputes. In the alternative special election benches may be constituted in high courts and earmarked exclusively for the disposal of election petitions and disputes.

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. Given all statements are correct.

Explanation: A. In case of a No-confidence motion, there is no need to set out the grounds on which it is based. No- Confidence motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha by the opposition and needs a support of not less than 50 members of LS for its introduction. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies the procedure for a motion of noconfidence. Any member may give a written notice; the speaker shall read the motion of no confidence in the House and ask all those persons to rise who favours that the motion be taken up. If there are 50 MPs in favour, the speaker allots a date for discussing the motion.

Explanation: D. Article 67(b) in the Constitution of India states, a Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Explanation: B. Stock Exchanges are listed in the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) List I-Union List, item no. 90 that reads, taxes other than stamp duties on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets. Forests Concurrent List, 17-A, Post Office Savings Bank -Union List-3, Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries - State List -6.

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The highest decision making body for planning in India is the Parliament, National Development Council is at second position and Planning Commission at third position. Economic and social planning is placed under Entry 20 in the Concurrent list.

1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana state
3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

Explanation: A. Haryana was founded in 1966 when the former state of Punjab was divided into Haryana and the modern Punjab. The 1967 general elections or the 4th Lok Sabha was held in February. Tripura, Manipur and Meghalaya became full-fledged states on Jan 21, 1972. Mysore state was renamed Karnataka in 1997.

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the Parliament
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund and a Public Account under Article 266 and a Contingency Fund for each State under Article 267. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are not subject to a Vote of Parliament.

Explanation: A. The Archaeological Survey of India, established in 1861 is a department of the Government of India attached to the Ministry of Culture. ASI is responsible for archaeological studies and the preservation of archaeological heritage of the country in accordance with the various acts of the Indian Parliament.

Explanation: C. Rural sanitation is not a subject in the Concurrent List. Public Health and Sanitation comes under the State List. Personal and food hygiene have been major cause of many diseases in developing countries. It was in this context that the central Rural Sanitation Programmer (CRSP) was launched in 1986.

1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge
2. The District Judge are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years' standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the sessions judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. These provisions are given under Article 233-235 in the chapter of Subordinate Courts in the Constitution of India.

Explanation: C. According to NHRC Act 1993, only a retired CJI can become chairman of NHRC, appointed by President on the recommendation of a committee comprising of PM, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition of both Houses of Parliament and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Explanation: B. President comes first, Vice-President second, Prime Minister third and Governors of states with in their respective State comes fourth in the Warrant of Precedence. According to Indian order of precedence, Judges of the Supreme Court

1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. Statement 1 is incorrect as fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka under the presidentship of Vasumitra and Ashvaghosh. Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandra Gupta-II and not during Kanishka's reign. Statement 2 is incorrect as Harsha was not antagonistic to Buddhism when Hiuen -Tsang met him.

Explanation: C. Jainism spread in South India under the leadership of Bhadrabahu (not Sthalabahu). The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Digambaras (not Shvetambaras) after the first council held at Pataliputra (modern Patna) by Sthulbahu.

Explanation: C. Atharvaveda is a book of magical formula. It contains charms and spells to ward-off evil and disease.

Explanation: A. The correct chronological order is Shankaracharya (9th Century CE) - Ramanuja (1017- 1137 CE) - Chaitanya (1486-1533 CE)

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half brother, Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. Sangama dynasty was founded by Harihara-I. Saluva dynasty was founded by Narasimha Saluva by defeating Dev Rayua-II of Sangama dynasty. Taluva dynasty was founded by Vira Narasimha and was succeeded by KD Raya and Achyuta Raya.

Explanation: C. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq founded Tughlaq dynasty in 1320 AD (CE). Nasiruddin Mahmud was the last ruler of Tughlaq dynasty (1395-1412 AD).

Explanation: A. Ahmadnagar was founded by Malik Ahmad of Nizam Shahi dynasty in 1490. It was annexed by Shahjahan in 1633 into the Mughal Empire.

1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjun Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjun Dev gave to Sikhs their own script Guru Mukhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Gobind Singh and not Guru Tegh Bahadur.

1. AD 1767
2. AD 1790
3. AD 1824
4. AD 1845

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. First Anglo-Maratha War - 1775-1782; First Anglo - Sikh War - 1845-1846; Second Anglo

Explanation: C. Vernacular Press Act was passed by Lord Lytton in 1878 and it was repealed by Ripon in 1882.

1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?

Explanation: A. Lord Curzon (1899-1905); Lord Chelmsford (1916-1921); Lord Hardinge (1910-1916); Lord Irwin (1926-1931).

1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara

The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is:

Explanation: C. These princely states were annexed by Lord Dalhousie under Doctrine of Lapse. Jhansi - 1854, Sambalpur- 1849 and Satara

1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi.
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. In the first Battle of Panipat (1526), Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur. In the Third Battle of Panipat (1761), Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Marathas. Tipu Sultan was killed in the fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799).

1. abolition of diarchy in the Governor's provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Provincial autonomy replaced diarchy. The Governor could refuse assent to bill, promulgate ordinances, and enact governor's acts. Statement 3 is incorrect as separate electorates based on communal representation persisted in the GIA, 1935.

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Statement 1 is incorrect as first session was held in 1885 at Bombay (not in Calcutta) under the presidentship of W.C. Banerjee. The second session was held in Calcutta. Lucknow session in 1916 was presided over by A.C. Majumdaar.

Explanation: A. The first session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on Dec 9, 1946.

Explanation: B. Montagu-Chelmsford or Montford Reforms which were announced in July, 1918 in line with the government policy contained in Montagu's statement (August, 1917) formed the basis of GIA, 1919.

Explanation: B. Maulana Hasrat Mohani proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control in 1921 when he was presiding over the session of All India Muslim League in Lucknow.

Explanation: C. Rabindra Nath Tagore returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919)

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events above?

Explanation: B. Chauri

Explanation: D. The circulation of atmosphere and oceans is funda-mentally caused by the fact that the amount of incoming solar radiation varies from a maximum at the equator to a minimum at the poles. More reflection and absorption of incoming radiation takes place in high latitude because of the greater thickness of atmosphere that must be penetrated. Thickness of the earth is maximum over the pole.

Explanation: B. Mekong is a major river in south eastern Asia. Mekong is known as the Lancang in China. It runs through Yunan province, China, forms the border between Myanmar and Laos and most of the border between Laos and Thailand and flows across Cambodia and Southern Vietnam before emptying to South China.

Explanation: D. Latvia does not share its border with Poland. Latvia only distinct border is the Battic Sea coast, which extends for 531 kilometers. Its neighbors include Lithuania on the south, Estonia on the north, Russia on the east and Belarus on the southeast.

1. A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
2. B. Red Sea 2. China
3. C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea
4. D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-1; B-3; C-2; D-3.

Explanation: D. Panama is a country located in the central America region fo North America, bordering both the carribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean, between Colombia and costa Rica. Panama is located on the narrow and low Isthmus of Panama.

Explanation: A. Onge is the major tribes of the union territory of Andaman and Nicobar. They were fully dependent on hunting and gathering. They belong to the Negrito race.

1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. : Statement '1' is correct, because National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into the hydro projects. Presently it has undertaken Koldem project in Himachal Pradesh.

1. Damodar, Valley Corporation is the first multi
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. Damodar Valley Corporation's (DVC) is first multi-purpose river valley project of independent. India was in the year 1954. The joint venture projects are Maithon Power Limited, Panchat and Tilayiya are hydroelectric power station. The DVC has under its operation four coal based thermal power stations, three hydel power stations and one gas turbine station so both the statement are correct.

1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Gujarat has longest coast line (1214.7 km) followed by Andhra Pradesh (973.7 km); Gujrat, with 10 airports, tops the list of states with the most number of operational airports.

1. A. Coal 1. Giridih
2. B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam
3. C. Manganese 3. Alwar
4. D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2.

Explanation: C. Length of Agra-Mumbai NH

1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range

What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?

Explanation: C. Option C is correct answer.

Explanation: B. Sambhar is India's largest salt lake which is located 96 km south west of city of Jaipur.

1. A. Kanger Ghati National Park 1. Chhattisgarh
2. B. Nagerhole National Park 2. Haryana
3. C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary 3. Himachal Pradesh
4. D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary 4. Karnataka

Codes:

Explanation: B. A-1; B-4; C-1; D-2.

Explanation: A. Option A is not correct.

Explanation: D. Bangalore receives lesser rainfall than Mangalore. Mangalore is located in windward slope and receives 2000 mm of rainfall, whereas Bangalore present in rain shadow area receives less than 500 mm of water.

Explanation: A. West flowing rivers Narmada and Tapti do not form delta, because topography of western peninsular India is rocky without loose sediments and no alluvial sediments carried by the rivers.

1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in manufacture of Zircon for India's Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: A. All the statements are correct according to Atomic developments in India.

Explanation: B.

Explanation: D. Similipal biosphere reserve is in Orissa. Dehong-Debang biosphere reserve is in Arunachal Pradesh, Nokrek biosphere reserve is in Meghalaya and Kanchenjunga biosphere reserve is situated in Sikkim.

Explanation: C. Haryana has 6.83% of area is forest cover area of the total land coverage, whereas Sikkim has 36%, 38.5% in Goa and 28.9% of Kerala has forest area of their total land mass.

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Maize
4. Mustard

Which of the above are kharif crops?

Explanation: B. Cotton, Groundnut and Maize are kharif crop whereas Mustard is a rabi crop.

Explanation: B. Increase in exemption limit to Rs 1 lakh to for the general categories of taxpayers. A higher exemption limit of Rs 1.50 lakh for widows and senior citizens was one of the recommendation of the task, force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay. Kelkar in the year 2002.

Explanation: D. As per 1991 census, Pondicherry and Delhi had the literacy rates of 75.3 and 74.7 respectively.

1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab
2. the two States with the lowest population per sq. km. of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. As per census 2001, child sex ratio in Haryana was 861, in Punjab 876 and in Sikkim 875. Hence, Haryana and Sikkim were the two states with lowest sex ratios. The population per sq. km. of area in Arunachal Pradesh was 13, in Meghalaya was 103 and in Mizoram was 42. Hence, the two states with the lowest population per sq. km of area are Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.

1. Regarding the procurement of food-grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union Territories.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Regarding the procurement of food-grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy. In case, there is no procurement target. The government allows the procurement agencies like the FCI to buy whatever is offered by the farmers for sale at MSP. Minimum Support Price is announced for around 22 crops. Wheat and Rice are issued by the central Government at Uniform central issue Prices (CIPs) to states and Union Territories for distribution under TPDS. The difference between the economic cost and issue price of food grains is reimbursed to the FCI by the central Government in the form of subsidy.

1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices.
2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall.
3. oils from the seeds of free origin and rice bran have remained unexploited.
4. it far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. The reduction of rainfall and leak of seed preservation technology are the main cause.

Explanation: B. India is the fourth largest country, regarding consumption of rubber with total consumption 631000 tons in 2001, after USA and Japan. Due to high consumption in domestic market India does not export natural rubber. However small quantities of natural rubber is exported to get higher prices.

Explanation: B. Service sector received 21% of total FDI flow between 2006 to 2010.

1. The National Housing Bank the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a whollyowned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a whollyowned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. The National Housing Bank (NHB) is a state owned bank and regulation authority in India, created on July 8, 1988 under section 6 of the National Housing Bank Act (1987). The headquarters is in New Delhi. The institution, owned by the Reserve Bank of India, was established to promote private real estate acquisition. NHB is regulating and re-financing social housing programs and other activities like research and ITinitiatives, too. Small Industries Development Bank of India is an independent financial institution for the growth and development of micro, small and medium scale enterprises in India. Set up in 2 April, 1990 through an Act of Parliament, it was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary of Industrial Development Bank of India.

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: D. RBI was established in 1935 and was nationalized on 1 January, 1949. RBI handles the borrowing programme of the central and State Governments.

Explanation: D. An alternating current (a.c.) is one which is constantly changing direction. Alternating current have two cycles positive half cycle and negative half cycle. Mains electricity is an a.c. supply which is supplied to homes in India at 220 V AC at 50 Hz. Thus, in our houses the current in A.C. electricity line changes direction = 50

Explanation: C. Creating firework colors is a complex endeavor, requiring considerable art and application of physical science. Strontium and barium both are alkaline earth metal and are extremely reactive. They both impart characteristic color to flame. Strontium salts impart a red color to fireworks. Strontium compounds are also important for stabilizing fireworks mixtures. Barium is used to create green colors in fireworks, and it can also help stabilize other volatile elements

1. A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
2. B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane
3. C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane
4. D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide

Codes:

Explanation: B. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is made by compressing natural gas which is composed of methane (CH4), it also contain small amount of ethane. Coal gas typically contains hydrogen, methane and carbon monoxide. LPG is the abbreviation or short form of Liquefied Petroleum gas. The major constituents of LPG is propane and butane. Water gas is a synthesis gas, containing carbon monoxide and hydrogen.

1. Non-functioning of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: D. Lachrymal is a tear produced gland which does not function due to deficiency of vitamin -A. Deficiency of vitamin - B1 causes loss of appetite, heart disorders, muscular weakness etc.

Explanation: C. Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of 51 amino acids. Insulin secrets from pancreas (Islets of Langerhans).

1. Toothless mammals such as Pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: B. Gibbon is the only ape found in rain forests of Assam in India, whereas Pangolins are found in tropical Asia and Africa.

Explanation: B. Lymphocytes are the cells that determine the specificity of the immune response to infectious microorganisms and other foreign substances. In humans lymphocytes make up 25 to 33% of the total number of leukocytes. Lymphocytes cells originate from bone marrow of long bones and Hen migrate to lymphatic system.

1. Adam Osborne introduced the first portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: C. Adam Osborne introduced the first portable computer in 1981 and Ian Wilmut, an English embryologist first cloned a mammal (Lamb) in year 1996.

Explanation: C. Assertion is true because a balance diet is a diet which contains the correct amount of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. But the reason is false, because human body cells synthesize various fatty acids except linoleic and linolenic fatty acids.

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. Athlete's foot' is a disease caused by virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: A. The largest bone in human body is femur. Cholera is caused by a bacteria Vibrio cholera. Athlete's foot disease is caused by parasific fungus of genus Trichophyton.

1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the language given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:

Explanation: A. Total speaker of Spanish in world is 329 million, Arabic speakers are 220 million and French speakers are 200 million. So, the correct sequence in decreasing order of the number of speakers are Spanish, Arabic and French.

1. A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) 1. Nairobi
2. B. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) 2. Vienna
3. C. United Nations Industrial DevelopmentOrganization (UNIDO) 3. Berne
4. Postal Union (UPU) 4. New York

Codes:

Explanation: B. The headquarters of United Nations Development Programme is in New york, the headquarters of United National Environment Programme is in Nairobi, The headquaters of United National Industrial Development Organisation is present in Vienna and Headquarters of Universal Postal Union is in Beru.

Explanation: B. World's longest ruling government is of Fidel Castro of Cuba. Fidel Castro came in power in 1959 following the Cuban revolution and became Prime Minister of Cuba in 1961 and from 1976 he became the President of Cuba till date.

Explanation: B. British Columbia is western most provinces of Canada, Bavaria is a state of Germany. Gibralter is the overseas territory of UK and Rhoda Island is the smallest state in USA.

Explanation: B. Benin

1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation
2. Croatin remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War
3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium and Greece

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: B. All the statements except '4' are correct. Slovenia was declared independent from Yugoslavia.

1. A. B.P. Mishra 1. Executive Director, IMF
2. B. Suresh Kalamadi 2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Limited
3. C. Praful Patel 3. President Indian Olympic Association
4. D. V. S. Jain 4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank

Codes:

Explanation: B. B.P. Mishra is the Executive Director of IMF, Suresh Kalmadi is the president of Indian Olympic Association, Praful Patel is the Vice President, South Asian Region, World Bank and V.S. Jain is the chairman of Steel Authority of India Limited.

Explanation: C. Ronu Mazumdar is well known exponent of flute whereas Debu Chaudhuri is an exponent of sitar and Sahafaat Ahmad is an exponent of tabla.

Explanation: A. The largest Buddhist Monastry is in Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh not in Assam

1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calendar.
2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632
3. The Gregorian Calendar is a lunar calendar

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation: There is no any true option.

1. A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore
2. B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials 2. Mumbai
3. C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History 3. Jabalpur
4. D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad

Codes:

Explanation: C. A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3.

Explanation: B. Central Organisation for Railway Electrification is present in Allahabad, Ambala, Bhubneshwar, Chennai, Banglore, Secunderabad, Lucknow, Kota and Gorakhpur not in Varanasi.

Explanation: A. Hukum Singh (April 1962-March 1967), GS Dhillon (April 1969-Dec 1975), Baliram Bhagat (Jan 1976-March 1977)

1. Department of Women and Child Development - 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Language - 2. Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply - Ministry of Water Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: C. The Department of Women and Child Development was set up in the year 1985 as a part of the Ministry of Human Resource Development. With effect from 30 January 2006, the Department has been upgraded to a Ministry. Department of official language comes under Ministry of Home Affairs.

1. P.V. Narasimha Rao's government established diplomatic relations between India and Isreal
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Isreal to have visited India

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

Explanation: A. The diplomatic relation between India and Isreal was established in 1992 under the Narsimha Rao regime. Ariel Sharon happened to be the first Prime Minister of Israel to visit India.

1. Voltas
2. Titan Industries
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels

Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?

Explanation: D. Voltas, Titan Industries, Rallis India and Indian Hotels are all companies under Tata Group.

Explanation: D. Rain water harvesting.

Explanation: A. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from Fiji.

Explanation: D. Among the given options, Highest score in a cricket match innings by an Indian is 281 runs of V.V.S. Laxman.

Explanation: B. Jhumpa Lahiri is related to novel writing, Sunita Narain is related to science and environment, Naina Lal Kidwai is related to banking and Ravina Raj Kohli is related to television media.

Explanation: D. Shikha Tandon is associated with Swimming, Ignace Tirkey is asociated with Hockey, Pankaj Advani is associated with Snooker and Rohan Bopanne is associated with Lawn Tennis.

1. A. Atropine 1. Local anaesthesia
2. B. Ether 2. Heart trouble
3. C. Nitroglycerine 3. Dilation of pupil
4. D. Pyrethrin 4. Mosquito control

Codes:

Explanation: D. Ether is used as an anesthesia at the time of surgery to prevent pain. Atropine is used as eye drops to dilate the pupil before eye examination. Nitroglycerine is widely used in the treatment of heart. Pyrethrin is biodegradable, non-persistent pesticide which is used to kill mosquitoes, fleas and other insects.