upsc general study 10years pape

GS Paper 1

By Year
By Subject

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2003

1. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?

39th

40th

42nd

44th

Explanation: D. 44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74(1) stated that, "there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions". However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, "act in accordance with such advice". The amendment went into effect from 3 January, 1977. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.

2. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:

continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments

allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Explanation: B. According to 93rd Amendment every Child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have right to free and compulsory Education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ capitation fee/ charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.

3. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

1. Article 16 A. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
2. Article 29 B. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
3. Article 30 C. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
4. Article 31 D. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them

Codes:

A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Explanation: A. These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitutionm, runs from Art 14

4. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:

political democracy

social democracy

Gandhian democracy

social and economic democracy

Explanation: D. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to establish the social and economic democracy. Political democracy is established by the Fundamental Rights.

5. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?

48 A

43 A

Explanation: A. This comes under Directive Principles of State Policy under part IV of the Constitution. Article 51 states that the state shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.

6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members

There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union minister

A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential elections

Explanation: C. In Rajya Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President from the persons who have special knowledge in art, science, literature and social service. In Lok Sabha, 2 members are nominated by the President from the Anglo-Indian community (Art 331). A nominated member can vote only in the Vice-Presidential elections.

7. Consider the following statements:

The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill

Which of these statements is correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: D. So far three joint sittings have been held, First was held on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961, Second was held on Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 and Third was held on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002. The presiding officer of joint sitting is Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

8. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliamentary separately by special majority?

Ordinary Bill

Money Bill

Finance Bill

Constitution Amendment Bill

Explanation: D. According to Article 368 an amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House present and voting, it shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the Bill.

9. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?

Deputy Prime Minister

Former Presidents

Governor of a State within his State

Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation: C. Order of precedence is President, Vice President, PM, Governor of State within their respective states, Former Presidents and Deputy PM, CJI and Speaker of LS.

10. Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Finance commission is/are:

to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes
to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States
to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

2 and 3

3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

Explanation: B. Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary. The commission makes recommendations to the president with regard to the distribution of the proceeds of taxes between the union and the states. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to be given to the states. Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.

11. Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,

the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals State Population/ Number of Elected MLAs of the State
the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA's and total number of elected MP's
there were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 and 2

Only 2

1 and 3

Only 3

Explanation: B. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the votes of all elected MLA's and total number of elected MP's.

12. Consider the following statements:

While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.

Which of these statements is are correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: A. The PAC is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament. The term of office of the members is one year. The Estimates Committee, constituted for the first time in 1950, is a Parliamentary Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs renders secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which, interalia recommends prorogation of both the Houses of the Parliament, Govt's stand on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions. Option 3 is not correct.

13. Survey of India is under the ministry of:

Defence

Environment and Forests

Home Affairs

Science and Technology

Explanation: D. Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science and Technology, is the oldest scientific department of the Govt. of India. It was set up in 1767.

14. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of the Parliament

The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government sources

Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspaper

Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country

Explanation: C. Madhya Pradesh publishes largest number of newspapers in India.

15. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:

The President of India

The Chief Justice of India

The Parliament

The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs

Explanation: C. The Parliament

16. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

Andhra Pradesh

Kolkata

Chennai

Orissa

Explanation: B. The U.T. of Andaman and Nicobar Islands comes under the jurisdiction of high court of Calcutta under its extended jurisdiction Act 1953.

17. Consider the following statements:

The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in the early medieval times.
The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South-East Asia and conquered some of the areas.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C. The Chola kingdom of the Sangam period extended from modern Tiruchi district to southern Andhra Pradesh. Their capital was first located at Uraiyur and then shifted to Puhar. Karikala was a famous king of the Sangam Cholas. Pattinappalai portrays his early life and his military conquests. In the Battle of Venni he defeated the mighty confederacy consisting of the Cheras, Pandyas and eleven minor chieftains. The Chola emperor launched a successful naval expedition against the sailendra kingdom.

18. Mrichchhakatika' an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with:

the love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan

the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India

the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta

the love affairs between a Gupta king and a princess of Kamarupa

Explanation: A. Mrichchhakatika (The Clay Court) is a Sanskrit play written by Shudraka in 2nd C BC. It is about a young man named Charudatta, and his love for Vasantasena, a rich courtesan.

19. Consider the following statements:

Vardhaman Mahavira's mother was the daughter of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka
Gautama Buddha's mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty
Parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Benaras

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: C. Vardhaman Mahavira's mother, Trishala was the sister (not the daughter) of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka.

20. Consider the following statements:

The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana Minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne.
The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 and 2

Only 2

Only 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: D. All statements are correct. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga in 185 BC. The last ruler of Kanva dynasty, Susharma was deposed by the Andhras and Satavahana dynasty came into being.

21. Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army. Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.

Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. A is correct as Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 to conquer Kabul to expand his kingdom. R is incorrect as he had no intention to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana.

22. Assertion (A): Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an emperor far away from his capital. Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier

Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an emperor away from his capital due to the fear of Najib Khan Rohilla who became very powerful in Delhi and not due to foreign invasions.

23. Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title. Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.

Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. He assumed the royal title not to save the kingdom but due to his greed for power.

24. Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire. Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have a clear concept of a united Indian nation.

Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Marathas never had the concept of a United Indian Nation. They are generally criticized for this reason

25. Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babur to invade India was:

an uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

a cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled from the country

the father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi

a high official in Punjab province who was discontented with Ibrahim Lodi's treatment to his tribe

Explanation: A. Alam Khan along with Daulat Khan Lodi invited Babur to India. In the first battle of Panipat in 1526, Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur.

26. Battle of Dharmat was fought between:

Muhammad Ghori and Jai Chand

Babur and Afghans

Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas

Explanation: C. The battle of Dharmat was fought between Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh in 1658 for Shahjahan's throne. Dara Shikoh was defeated by Aurangzeb.

27. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandarshah's reign, come to an early end?

He was deposed by his Wazir

He died due to a slip while climbing down the steps

He was defeated by his nephew in a battle

He died of sickness due to drinking

Explanation: C. He was defeated by his nephew, Farrukh Siyyar with the help of Sayyid Brothers

28. Consider the following statements:

Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II
Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early from of the musical style known as Qawali

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C. Ibrahim Adil Shah II was ruler of Bijapur and wrote Kitab-i-Nauras. Amir Khusrau is popularly known as 'Father of Qawali' in India.

29. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?

He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles

He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab

He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later

He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

Explanation: D. Qutbud-din Aibak died after a fall from his horse while playing chaugan (polo) in 1210. He was succeeded by Aram Shah. Qutbud-din Aibak was the founder of first independent Turkish kingdom in Northern India in 1206.

30. During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Whitley Commission?

To review the fitness of India for further political reforms.

To report on existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations.

To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India.

To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India.

Explanation: B. Whitley chaired the Royal Commission on Labour in India, which reported in 1931.

31. With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499.

The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam.

In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633.

Under the leadership of Dupleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746.

Explanation: A. The Portuguese captured Goa from rulers of Bijapur in 1510 and not in 1499.

32. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factory at:

Surat

Pulicat

Cochin

Cassimbazar

Explanation: B. The Dutch East India Company in India, established the first factory in Masulipattanam in 1605, followed by Pulicat in 1610, Surat in 1616, Bimilipatam in 1641 and Chinsura in 1653.

33. The aim of education as stated by the Wood's Despatch of 1854 was:

the creation of employment opportunities for native Indians

the spread of western culture in India

the promotion of literacy among the people using English medium

the introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education

Explanation: D. Wood's Despatch of 1854 are considered as the Magna Carta of English education in India. Statement (C) is incorrect as it recommended English as the medium of instructions for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.

34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal.

Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore.

Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid's Elements of Geometry' translated into Sanskrit.

Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sharda in the Shringeri temple.

Explanation: A. Farrukhsiyar introduced revenue farming in Bengal.

35. Which one of the following provisions was not made in the Charter Act of 1833?

The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished.

The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council.

All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council.

An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General's Council.

Explanation: D. Charter Act of 1833 provides for the appointment of a law member but not necessarily an Indian.

36. With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?

To bring Indians and Europeans at par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned.

To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers.

To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India.

To allow native Indians to posses arms by amending the Arms Act.

Explanation: A. Ilbert Bill was introduced during the viceroyality of Lord Rippon

37. In India, the first Bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:

Hindustan Commercial Bank

Oudh Commercial Bank

Punjab National Bank

Punjab and Sind Bank

Explanation: B. The first entirely Indian joint stock bank was the Oudh Commercial Bank, established in 1881 in Faizabad. It collapsed in 1958. The next was the Punjab National Bank was established in Lahore in 1895, which has survived to the present and is now one of the largest banks in India.

38. Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in the year 1946?

Rajendra Prasad

Jawaharlal Nehru

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Rajagopalachari

Explanation: B. Interim government was formed on Sept 2, 1946 as per Cabinet mission proposal. It was headed by Jawahar Lal Nehru.

39. The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was:

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Mahatma Gandhi

Vithalbhai J. Patel

Mahadev Desai

Explanation: A. The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, in the state of Gujarat was led by Vallabhbhai Patel. The women of Bardoli gave him the title of Sardar

40. Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council. Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the Government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.

Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: D. Rowlatt Act was passed in March, 1919. The act authorized the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law. Maulana Mohd. Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the legislative council in 1919 during the Khilafat Movement and not in 1916.

41. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is not correct

The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of popular indignation and led to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre

Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc

Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association

In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed the Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Explanation: D. In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi endorsed (not opposed) Gandhi-Irwin Pact. It was presided over by Vallabh Bhai Patel

42. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was:

that all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India

the creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the end of Second World War

the active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war efforts as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after the war

the framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces

Explanation: B. Statement d is incorrect as any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate union. Cripps Mission provides for an Indian Union with a dominion status after the second world war; which would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.

43. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the:

Swarajya Party

Indian Freedom Party

Independence Federation of India

Indian Liberal Federation

Explanation: D. When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu- Chelmsford Report (July, 1918), many moderates led by Surendra Nath Banerjea left the party to form Indian Liberal Federation in 1919.

44. Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. The amount of moisture in atmosphere is related to latitude because the temperature depends upon the latitude and capacity to hold moisture is related to temperature.

45. Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farmland that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers. Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of temperate forests.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: D. A is false but R is true.

46. Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year. Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. The highest rainfall totals occur near the equator in the tropics, where the strong heating by the sun creates significant vertical uplifts of air and the formation of prolonged heavy showers and frequent thunderstorms.

47. Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?

Temperate coniferous forests

Temperate deciduous forests

Tropical monsoon forests

Tropical rain forests

Explanation: A. Temperature coniferous forests covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world.

48. The waterfall 'Victoria' is associated with the river:

Amazon

Missouri

St. Lawrence

Zambezi

Explanation: D. Victoria waterfalls is associated with the river Zambezi which is situated in Africa.

49. Life expectancy is the highest in the world in:

Canada

Germany

Japan

Norway

Explanation: C. Life expectancy in Canada is 79.7 years, Germany - 77.8 years, Japan - 80.9, Norway - 78.9 years. Japan has the highest life expectancy in the world.

50. Consider the following statements:

In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are in a minority
In Kosovo, Serbians are in a majority

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: A. In Macedonia, ethinic Albanian population is 23%, which is a good number in Macedonia. But in Kosovo 92% are Albanians and Serbians are in a minority.

51. Israel has common borders with:

Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan

Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt

Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

Explanation: A. Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt.

52. Which among the following countries has the largest population?

Indonesia

Japan

Pakistan

Sudan

Explanation: A. Indonesia has the largest population in the given countries.

53. Which one of the following countries is land locked?

Bolivia

Peru

Surinam

Uruguay

Explanation: A. Bolivia is a land locked country, in South America the surrounding countries are Peru, Chile, Argentina, Brazil and Paraguay.

54. Which one of the following countries does not border the Caspian Sea?

Armenia

Azerbaijan

Kazakhstan

Turkmenistan

Explanation: A. Armenia is a former Soviet republic. It is located in the Mountainous Caucasus region between Asia and Europe. It is a land locked country.

55. What is the correct sequence of the rivers

Godavari

Narmada

Explanation: B. The correct sequence of the river in descending order of their lengths are Godavari (1465 km), Narmada (1312 km), Mahanadi (858 km) and Tapti (724 km).

56. Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census-2001?

Kerala

Madhya Pradesh

Uttar Pradesh

West Bengal

Explanation: D. As per the census 2001, West Bengal has the highest population density of 904, Kerala has 819, Madhya Pradesh has 196 and Uttar Pradesh has 689.

57. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:

Assam Himalayas

Kumaon Himalayas

Nepal Himalayas

Punjab Himalayas

Explanation: B. Nanda Devi peak are a part of Kumaon Himalayas located in Chamoli district of Uttaranchal.

58. Among the following cities, which one has the highest altitude above mean sea level?

Bangalore

Delhi

Jodhpur

Nagpur

Explanation: A. Bangalore is the city which is 937 metres above sea level, Delhi is 218 metres sea level, Jodhpur is 230 metres and Nagpur is 247.5 metres above the sea level.

59. Consider the following statements:

Longitude of Jabalpur's location is between those of Indore and Bhopal.
Latitude of Aurangabad's location is between those of Vadodara and Pune.
Bangalore is situated more southward than Chennai

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 and 3

Only 2

2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: C. The longitude of Jabalpur's location is to the east of Bhopal, Bangalore is north of Channai.

60. Which one among the following states is smallest in area?

Andhra Pradesh

Gujarat

Karnataka

Tamil Nadu

Explanation: D. The area of Andhra Pradesh is 160,205 sq km, area of Gujarat is 196,024 sq km, the area of Karnataka is 191, 791 sq km and Tamil Nadu is 130, 058 sq km.

61. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?

Delhi

Kolkata

Jodhpur

Nagpur

Explanation: B. The Tropic of Cancer located at 23.5

62. Assertion (A): Eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast. Reason (R): Eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Assertion is true, but reason is false. The western coast receives more rainfall than eastern coast, but the temperature between 20-27

63. Consider the following statements:

India is the original home of the cotton plant
India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C. India is the original home of cotton plant, and India ranks number one in the world accounting for 20% of the total area planted under cotton. The cotton hybrid variety H

64. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of:

Agriculture

Environment and Forests

Commerce and Industry

Rural-Development

Explanation: A. The genetic engineering approval committee comes under Ministry of Enviroment, Forest and Climate change.

65. Consider the following statements:

India ranks first in the world in fruit production
India ranks second in the world in export of tobacco

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither I nor 2

Explanation: D. India ranked 2nd in the fruit production in the world and ranked 6th in production of tobacco.

66. Consider the following animals of India:

Crocodile
Elephant

Which of these is/are endangered species?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: A. Only crocodile is kept in the Red book or endangered species list.

67. Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are:

levied and collected by the State Government
appropriated by the Union Government

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: D. Stamp duty is a form of tax that is levied on documents. It is levied by the union or the central government and collected and appropriated by the state governments. (Entry 91 in the union list; entry 63 in the state list of Seventh Schedule of Constitution of India).

68. Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?

Chhattisgarh

Madhya Pradesh

Orissa

Rajasthan

Explanation: A. As per the census of 2001, Chhattisgarh has the highest female literacy of 51.85, Orissa has 50.51%, Madhya Pradesh - 50.29 and Rajasthan has 43.85%.

69. Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small scale sector in industry?

Abid Hussian Committee

Narasimham Committee

Nayak Committee

Rakesh Mohan Committee

Explanation: A. Abid Hussain Committee (1997) recommended total de-reservation and desired replacing policy of reservation with a policy of promotion and strengthening of small scale units.

70. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

IPCL is India's largest petrochemical company

RIL is the largest private sector company in India

MTNL is listed on NYSE

BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time

Explanation: A. ONGC is India's largest petrochemical company. IPCL is the second largest petrochemical company. It produces around 69% of India's crude oil and around 62% of its natural gas.

71. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

India is the third largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world.

India is the ninth largest steel producing country in the world.

India is the second largest producer of silk in the world.

India ranks third in the world in coal production.

Explanation: C. As per current data, India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world. India is the third largest steel producing country in the the world. India is the second largest producer of silk in the world after china. India is the second largest producer of coal in the world after china.

72. During the year 2000-01 which one of the following Industries recorded the highest growth rate in India?

Cement

Coal

Electricity

Steel

Explanation: D. The steel industry recorded highest growth rate of 7%, electricity, generation growth rate was 4%, coal industry growth was 3.3%

73. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines

The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country's international airports

The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organisation for enforcing civil air regulations in India

It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services

Explanation: A. Alliance Air was formed in 1996 and was complelety owned by Indian Airline.

74. Debenture holders of a company are its:

shareholders

creditors

debtors

directors

Explanation: B. Debenture is a long-term bond issued by a company in return for a loan which have a fixed rate of interest.

75. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to:

carbon dioxide

dust particles

helium

water vapours

Explanation: B. Dust particles are responsible for the diffusion of light in atmosphere.

76. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature

The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure

The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases

The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency

Explanation: C. The velocity of sound in air is determined by the air itself and is not dependent upon the amplitude, frequency, or wavelength of the sound. The velocity of sound c depends on the temperature of air and not on the air pressure. Thus, velocity of sound in air increases with temperature and remains unaffected with increase of pressure. Therefore, statements 1, 2 and 4 are right. Only statement 3 is wrong. The only other factor that has any effect on the speed of sound in air is the amount of humidity in the air. An increase in the amount of humidity in the air increases the speed by a small amount.

77. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:

Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductor of electricity.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: A. Ionic compound is a chemical compound in which ions are held together in a lattice structure by ionic bonds. Following the aphorism, "like dissolves like", ionic compounds dissolve in polar solvents, especially those that ionize, such as water and ionic liquids. They are usually appreciably soluble in other polar solvents such as alcohols, acetone. Solid ionic compounds cannot conduct electricity because there are no mobile ions or electrons present in the lattice.

78. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to

orientation

shape

size

spin

Explanation: A. Magnetic quantum number represents the number of orbitals present in the sub-shell magnetic quantum number about the orientation of the orbital.

79. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Liquid sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors.

Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of tooth paste.

Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime.

Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling.

Explanation: A. Liquid sodium is used as a coolant because water is difficult to use as a coolant for a fast reactor because water acts as a neutron moderator that slows the fast neutrons into thermal neutrons. While it may be possible to use supercritical water as a coolant in a fast reactor, this would require a very high pressure. In contrast, sodium atoms are much heavier than both the oxygen and hydrogen atoms found in water, and therefore the neutrons lose less energy in collisions with sodium atoms. Sodium also need not be pressurized since its boiling point is higher than the reactor's operating temperature. A disadvantage of sodium is its chemical reactivity, which requires special precautions to prevent and suppress fires. If sodium comes into contact with water it explodes, and it burns when in contact with air.

80. The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is

to keep the washing powder dry.
to maintain the alkalinity of the powder.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C. The addition of silicates to synthetic detergents has proved very beneficial. Silicates soften water by the formation of precipitates that can be easily rinsed away. Soluble silicates contribute to detergents as cleaning aids, processing aids, and corrosion inhibitors. As cleaning aids, soluble silicates provide alkalinity and promote soil suspension. Sodium sulphate is simply a filler in detergent powder, in much the same way as fillers are used in many medical tablets, it doesn't play any active role as such.

81. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?

Hydrocarbons

Nitrogen Oxide

Ozone

Methane

Explanation: C. During the photochemical smog ozone, nitric acid, PAN are produced.

82. Consider the following statements:

The common blue green algae, Spirogyra and Ulothrix, are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
The Chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: B. Spirogyra and Ulothrix are green algae not blue green algae. The chameleon can see in both the direction forward and backward at the same time.

83. Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats. Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.

Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Assertion is true because unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with saturated fats due to multiple bonds present between carbon atoms. The reason is false because unsaturated fats have atleast double bond in their structure.

84. Consider the following statements:

Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: A. Molasses is by-product of sugar production process and bagasse of sugar used as a fuel in boilers for sugar factories. But sugar produced from sugar cane and also from sugar beet.

85. Octopus is

an arthropod

an echinoderm

a hemichordate

a mollusk

Explanation: D. Octopus is an animal of class-Cephalopoda and phylum Mollusca. The shell is absent. It is found at bottom of the sea. It kills its prey with poisonous saliva. It can change its colour.

86. Consider the following conditions of a sick human body

Swollen lymph nodes
Sweating at night
Loss of memory
Loss of weight

Which of these are symptoms of AIDS?

1 and 2

2, 3 and 4

I, 3 and 4

I, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: D. AIDS is a viral disease. In this disease the immune system weakens and the body becomes prone to different type of infection by pathogens. Sweating at night, swollen lymph nodes, loss of memory and loss of weight are also symptoms of AIDS.

87. With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements

After the waste is removed in the kidney, the clean blood is sent back through renal artery.
From Bowman's capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: B. nephron consists of a network of tiny blood vessels, the glomerulus surrounded by Bowman's capsule. Pressure forces much of the blood plasma through the glomerulus and into Bowman's capsule. The resulting tubular fluid, which contains water and dissolved chemicals then passes into convoluted tubule and loop of Henle. This capillary network provides a mean for pick up and delivery of materials that are reabsorbed and secreted by the kidney.

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Milk contains none of the B-vitamins.

Vitamin-A (retinol) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin.

One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints.

Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure.

Explanation: A. Milk contains vitamin B1 (Thiamin) and vitamin B2 (riboflavin). So, statement (A) is not correct.

89. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:

In response to the presence of HCl, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: C. Both the statement is correct.

90. Which one of the following statements is correct?

East Timor was British colony for four centuries

The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975

The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence

East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001

Explanation: C. The United Nation took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare for its independence and East Timor finally got independence on 20 may 2002.

91. In which one of the following countries is rupee its currency?

Bhutan

Malaysia

Maldives

Seychelles

Explanation: D. The rupee is the currency of Seyhelles. It is locally called roupi, it is subdivided into 100 cents. Currency of Bhutan is Ngultrum, Currency of Malaysia is Malaysian Ringget and Currency of Maldives is Maldives Rufiyaa.

92. Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?

Bengali

French

Japanese

Portuguese

Explanation: A. According to 2005 edition of the National encyklopedin, the largest number of speakers in the world are, Portuguese (213 millikon speakers); Bengali (215 million speakers); Japanese; (127 million speakers); French (130 million speakers).

93. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?

Iceland

India

New Zealand

U.S.A

Explanation: C. New Zealand gave the right to vote to women in 1893.

94. With reference to Indian defence. Which one of following statements is NOT correct?

With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface to surface ballistic missiles under its command

Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles

Trishul is a supersonic surface to air missile with a range of 30 km

The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch

Explanation: A. Correct option is A.

95. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:

Explanation: C. Brijmohan Lal Munjal is chief of Hero Honda i.e.,he is related to Automobile Industry. Kiran Karnik is chief of NASCOM i.e., he is related to Software Industry. Kiran Muzumdar Shaw is related to biotechnology and Sunil Mittal is chief of Bharti Group i.e., related to Telecom industry.

96. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali

The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1 st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year

The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947

The song 'Jana-gana-mana', composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India

Explanation: A. National Song was composed originally in Sanskrit (not in Bengali).

97. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in:

Bihar

Chhattisgarh

Jharkhand

Orissa

Explanation: C. Bokaro thermal power plant is located in Jhadkhand, near Konai Dam

98. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?

Kolkata

Kochi

Mumbai

Visakhapatnam

Explanation: B. Kochi shipyard is the largest shipyard in India.

99. Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a:

literature

musician

scientist

sportsperson

Explanation: A. Dr. Dalip Kaur Tiwana is a foremost novelist and short-story writer of contemporary Punjabi literature.

100. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:

During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi ,and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC
Lahore summit took place in the year 1997
Islamabad summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3

Only 2

Only 1

Explanation: D. The Lahore Declaration is a bilateral agreement and governance treaty between India and Pakistan. The treaty was signed on February 21, 1999, at the conclusion of a historic summit in Lahore and ratified by the parliaments of both countries the same year. Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Benazir Bhutto.