upsc general study 10years pape

GS Paper 1

By Year
By Subject

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2002

1. Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?

39th

40th

42nd

44th

Explanation: D. 44th Before the 42nd amendment, Article 74(1) stated that, "there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions". However, there was a slight ambiguity whether the advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President. Forty-second Amendment of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) made it explicit that the President shall, "act in accordance with such advice". The amendment went into effect from 3 January, 1977. The 44th Amendment (1978) however added that the President can send the advice back for reconsideration once. But if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the President must accept it. The amendment went into effect from 20 June, 1979.

2. The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:

continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment

free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments

allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Explanation: B. According to 93rd Amendment every Child of the age group of 6-14 years shall have right to free and compulsory Education. No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ capitation fee/ charges. A collection of capitation fee invites a fine up to 10 times the amount collected.

3. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Article 16 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law
B. Article 29 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
C. Article 30(I) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
D. Article 31 (I) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them.

Codes:

A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Explanation: A. These are Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution, runs from Art 14

4. With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements is correct?

Planning Commission is accountable to the Parliament

President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session

The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years

National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States

Explanation: B. President can issue an ordinance only when both houses of parliament are not in session (Art 123). No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court in the Constitution. The age of a Judge of the SC shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as parliament may by law provide. NDC is composed of the PM as its head, all Union Cabinet ministers, the CMs of all states, CMs/ Administrators of all UTs and the members of the Planning Commission. There is no constitutional provision regarding the accountability of the planning commission the parliament.

5. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

2 and 3

l and 4

2 and 4

Explanation: B. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers and salaries. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier.

6. In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is:

5,000 and 2,500

10,000 and 2,500

10,000 and 5,000

15,000 and 7,500

Explanation: C. As per the given options the right answer is (c). As if now (2018); The security deposit for Lok Sabah election is Rs 25,000 while for on Assembly election it is Rs 10,000. A de feasted indicate who fails to secure move than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.

7. The term of the Lok Sabha:

cannot be extended under any circumstances

can be extended by six months at a time

can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency

can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency

Explanation: C. The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352.

8. Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?

Finance Commission

Inter-State Council

Union Ministry of Finance

Public Accounts Committee

Explanation: A. The finance commission will be governed by the principles to allocate grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated fund of India.

9. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the:

President of India

Ministry of Railways

Ministry of Parliament Affairs

Ministry of Transport

Explanation: C. Main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government and the manner of their implementation.

10. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the:

Consolidated Fund of India

Consolidated Fund of the State

Contingency Fund of India

Contingency Fund of the State

Explanation: B. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the HC are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the state but their pensions are payable as Charged Expenditure.

11. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are:

Article 16 to Article 20

Article 15 to Article 19

Article 14 to Article 18

Article 13 to Article 17

Explanation: C. Fundamental Rights have been categorised into 6 groups: Right to Equality (14-18), Right to Freedom (19-22), Right against Exploitation (23 and 24), Right to Freedom of Religion (25 and 28), Cultural & Educational Rights (29 and 30), Right to Constitutional remedies (32).

12. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?

Right to Freedom of Religion

Right to Property

Right to Equality

Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation: D. Right to Constitutional Remedies under article 32 is a Fundamental Right. It was called the very soul of Indian constitution and very heart of it, by B.R. Ambedkar.

13. Match List-I (Ancient site) with List-II (Archaeological finding) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Lothal 1. Ploughed field
B. Kalibangan 2. Dockyard
C. Dholavira 3. Terrcotta replica of a plough
D. Banawali 4. An inscription comprising ten large sized signs of the Harappan script

Codes:

Explanation: B. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3.

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

The statue of Gomateshwara at Shravana Belagola represents the last Tirthankara of Jains.

India's largest Buddhist monastery is in Arunachal Pradesh.

Khajuraho temples were built under Chandela kings.

Hoysaleswara temple is dedicated to Siva.

Explanation: A. The Statue of Gomateshwara was built in deference to Jain deity Bahubali, It does not represent last Tirthankara of Jains. India's largest Buddhist monastery is Tawang Monastery located in Arunachal Pradesh. It is the second largest in the world after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet.

15. In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It was the:

occasion to elect the Sanghparinayaka and two speakers one on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya

confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in the monasteries during the rainy season

ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in which the head is shaved and when yellow robes are offered

gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full-moon day of Ashadha when they take up a fixed abode for the next four months of the rainy season

Explanation: B. Pavarana is a Buddhist holy day celebrated on the full moon of the eleventh lunar month. It marks the end of the month of Vassa, sometimes called "Buddhist Lent." This day marks the end of the rainy season in some Asian countries like Thailand, where Theravada Buddhism is practiced. On this day, each monk (Pali: bhikkhu) must come before the community of monks (Sangha) and atone for an offense he may have committed during the Vassa.

16. The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of Visakhadutt has its subject on:

a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore

a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal woman

the story of the power struggle between two Aryan .

the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta

Explanation: D. The Mudrarakshasa ("The Signet of the Minister"), a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta (4th century CE) narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya to power in Northern India.

17. Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?

Dadu

Kabir

Ramananda

Tulsidas

Explanation: C. Ramananda (1360-1470) was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message.

18. With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one of the following statement is correct?

Alauddin Khalji first set up a separate ariz's department.

Balban introduced the branding of horses in his military.

Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his uncle to the military.

Firoz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves.

Explanation: D. Firoz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves known as 'Diwan-i-Bandagan'. Mohd Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his cousin (not uncle) Firoz Tughlaq. Alauddin Khalji introduced the branding system of horses in his military.

19. The motive behind Shah Jahan's Balkh campaign was to:

secure a friendly ruler in Balkh and Badakshan which bordered Kabul

conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal homelands

fix the Mughal frontier on the 'scientific line', the Amu Daria

expand the Mughal Empire beyond the subcontinent

Explanation: A. The motive behind Shah Jahan's Balkh and Badakshan campaign in central Asia was to secure the defence of North-West India. That's why the statement a is correct.

20. Assertion (A): Muhammad Bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-Dwari. Reason (R): At that time, Delhi was ravaged by plague and many people died.

Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. Like Allauddin Khalji, Muhammad bin Tughlaq also tried to bring changes in the agrarian set up. Some historians point out that he made an over assessment because of which many peasants fled the region. But the states share remained half. A severe famine in this period worsened the situation. Muhammad bin Tughlaq tried to provide relief to those affected and made efforts to improve and extend cultivation. The sultan left Delhi and rendered in a camp called swargadwari near kanauj. He also set up a separate department called diwan-i amir-i kohi whose function was to extend cultivation by providing loans.

21. Historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because:

majority of the population did not follow Islam

muslim theologists were often disregarded

Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations

religious freedom was accorded to non-muslims

Explanation: C. Zia-ud-din-Barani was a contemporary of Muhammad Tughlaq and Firoz Tughlaq. He enjoyed the patronage of both the sultans. He composed Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi and Fatwa-i-Jahandari.

22. With reference to Suffism in Indian history, consider the following statements:

Sheikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of Ibrahim Lodi
Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirag-I-Dehlavi was a disciple of Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya
Aurangzeb was a contemporary of Sheikh Salim Chisti
Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by Sheikh Niamutullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

2 and 4

Explanation: D. Sheikh Ahmad Sarhandi of Naqshbandi order was a contemporary of Akbar and Jahangir. The Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by Sheikh Nizamatullah (He died in 1430 AD) and Makhdum (or Nasiruddin) Muhammad Jilani (died in 1517).

23. Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding India's direct representation in the British parliament?

The Deccan Association

The Indian Association

The Madras Mahajan Sabha

The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

Explanation: D. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 by M.G. Ranaday and Joshi. It submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding India's direct representation in the British Parliament.

24. With which one of the following mountain tribes did the British first come into contact with after the grant of Diwani in the year 1765?

Garos

Khasis

Kukis

Tipperahs

Explanation: B. After the grant of Diwani in the year 1765, the British first came in contact with a mountain tribes called Khasis.

25. Match List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List-II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Charter Act, 1813 1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India
B. Regulating Act 2. Company's trade monopoly in India was ended
C. Act of 1858 3. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
D. Pitt's India Act 4. The Company's directors were asked to present to the British government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company

Codes:

Explanation: A. Regulating Act was passed in 1773. Pitts India Act was passed in 1784.

26. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy's authority over his Executive Council by substituting "Portfolio" or departmental system for corporate functioning?

Indian Council Act, 1861

Government of India Act, 1858

Indian Council Act, 1892

Indian Council Act, 1909

Explanation: A. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 transformed the viceroy's Executive Council into a miniature cabinet run on the portfolio system, and each of the five ordinary members was placed in charge of a distinct department of Calcutta's government.

27. With reference to the period of extremist nationalist movement in India with its spirit of Swadeshi, which one of the following statements in not correct?

Liaquat Hussain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their agitation

In 1889, the scheme of national education was formulated by Satish Chandra Mukherjee

The Bengal National College was founded in 1906 with Aurobindo as the Principal

Tagore preached the cult of Atmasakti, the main plank of which was social and economic regeneration of the villages

Explanation: A. Liaquat Hussain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their agitation.

28. With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders to start a nationalist and militant Ahrar movement

When the Indian National Congress was formed, Syed Ahmed Khan opposed it

The All-India Muslim League which was formed in 1906 vehemently opposed the partition of Bengal and separate electorates

Maulana Barkataullah and Maulana Obeidullah Sindhi were among those who formed a provisional government of India in Kabul.

Explanation: C. The All-India Muslim League founded at Dacca (now Dhaka, Bangladesh), in the Bengal Presidency, in 1906. It supported the partition of Bengal to create a majority of Muslims after partition of the province.

29. The real intention of the British for including the princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to:

exercise more and direct political and administrative

involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony

finally effect the complete political and administrative take-over of all the princely states by the British

use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders

Explanation: D. use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders

30. The President of Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India was:

C. Rajagopalachari

J. B. Kripalani

Jawaharlal Nehru

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Explanation: B. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was the Indian National Congress President (Nov, 1946

31. With reference to colonial period of Indian history, match List-I (Person) with List-II (Event) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Macdonald 1. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Linlithgo 2. Communal Award
C. Dalhousie 3. August Offer
D. Chelmsford 4. Dyarchy

Codes:

Explanation: C. The Communal Award was announced by British PM, Ramsay McDonald in August 1932. August Offer - 1940; Under Doctrine of Lapse, Dalhousie annexed Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Udaipur, Jhansi, Nagpur and Awadh. Government of India Act 1919, introduced diarchy during the viceroyality of Chelmsford.

32. During the Indian freedom struggle, the Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as Red Shirts called for:

the Union of Pakhtun tribal areas in north-west with the Afghanistan

the adoption of terrorist tactics and methods for terrorising and finally ousting the colonial rulers

the adoption of communist revolution ideology for political and social reform

the Pathan regional nationalist unity and a struggle against colonialism.

Explanation: D. Khudai Khidmatgars were organized by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (Frontier Gandhi). Khudai Khidmatgar literally translates as the servants of God, represented a non-violent freedom struggle against the British Empire by the Pashtuns (also known as Pathans, Pakhtuns or Afghans) of the North-West Frontier Province.

33. Assertion (A): The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak. Reason (R): The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeois and reactionary.

Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. The labour leaders were influenced by communist ideology and considered INC as bourgeoisie and reactionary. That's why their participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge was limited.

34. The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of:

Cripps Mission

Rajagopalachari Formula

Cabinet Mission

Wavell Plan

Explanation: C. Cabinet Mission (1946) was the last opportunity to avoid the partition of India with the formation of interim Government. But Muslim League rejected the plan even though they won 73 out of 78 seats in the interim government. They did not attend the first meeting of Constituent Assembly on Dec 9, 1946.

35. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were:

nominated by the British Parliament

nominated by the Governor General

elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various province

elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League

Explanation: C. The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were to be elected by provincial assemblies under the system of proportional representation.

36. Chapchar Kut is a festival celebrated in the state of:

Arunanchal Pradesh

Assam

Mizoram

Sikkim

Explanation: C. Chapchar kut is a festival celebrated in the state of Mizoram.

37. Match List-I (Artist) with List-II (Art) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Hira Battacharya 1. Bharatanatyam dance
B. Malini Rajurkar 2. Hindustani vocal music
C. Pratiba Prahlad 3. Kuchipudi dance
D. Vampati Chinna Satyam 4. Pupperty

Codes:

A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3

A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3

A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4

Explanation: A. Hira Bhatacharya is associated with Puppetry. Malini Rajurkar is associated with Hindustani vocal, Pratiba Prahlad is associated with Bharatnatyam and Vampati Chinna Satyam is associated with Kuchipudi dance.

38. Sun's halo is produced by the refraction of light in:

water vapour in Stratus clouds

ice crystals in Cirro-Cumulus clouds

ice crystals in Cirrus clouds

dust particles in Stratus clouds

Explanation: C. Sun halo also known as 22 degree halo, the ring is caused by sunlight passing through ice crystals in cirrus clouds with in the Earth's atmosphere.

39. Consider the following statements:

Ocean currents are slow-surface movement of water in the ocean.
Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth's heat balance
Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds
Ocean currents are affected by the configuration of the ocean

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: B. Ocean currents are not slow most of the time and can be subsurface current also. So, statement '1' is wrong. But '2', '3' and '4' statements are correct.

40. Consider the following statements:

In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four main seasons
In Mediterranean region, summer months receives more rain.
In China type climate; rainfall occurs throughout the year
Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation of different climates

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 2 and 4

3 and 4

Explanation: D. 1st statement is wrong: Equational region has only two seasons. 2nd statement : Mediterranean gets rainfall during winter season is also wrong.

41. Consider the following ecosystems:

Taiga
Tropical Evergreen
Tropical Deciduous
Tundra

The correct sequence in decreasing order of the Albedo values of these ecosystems is:

1, 4, 3, 2

4, 1, 3, 2

4, 1, 2, 3

1, .4, 2, 3

Explanation: B. According to ecosystem, the maximum albedo would be of Tundra, then Taiga, then Tropical Deciduous then Tropical ever green.

42. Assertion (A): 60

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. A is true but R is false. Sub-polar low pressure is located between 60

43. Assertion (A): The surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre of the cyclone. Reason (R: Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. Air begins to slowly descend in the centre of the storm, creating a rain-free area. This is a newly formed eye. On land, the centre of the eye is, by for, the calmest part of the storm.

44. Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena:

Condensation
High temperature and humidity
Orography
Vertical wind

Thunder cloud development is due to which of these phenomena?

1 and 2

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1, 2 , 3 and 4

Explanation: D. The thunder clouds develop by the above climatic and geographic phenomena. High temperature and humidity causes the wind to rise vertically up and due to orography and pressure of mountains these winds get condensed and form cumulonimbus clouds or thunder clouds.

45. For short-term climatic predictions, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian sub-continent?

La Nina

Movement of Jet Stream

El Nino. and Southern Oscillations

Greenhouse effect at global level

Explanation: C. E1 Nino and La Nina are opposite phases of what is known as the E1 Nino-southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle. The ENSO cycle is a scientific term that describes the fluctuations in temperature between the ocean and atmosphere in the east-central. Impact of E1 -Nino: Normal or High rainfall in Eastern/Central Pacific and Drought or Scant rainfall in western Pacific/Asia.

46. Which one of the following is not a lagoon?

Ashtamudi lake

Chilka lake

Periyar lake

Pulicat lake

Explanation: C. Periyar Lake is favoured by the construction of the dam across the Mulloperiyar River. It is an artificial lake in the middle of the periyar wildlife sanctuary.

47. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar system?

The earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system

The predominant element in the composition of earth is silicon

The sun contains 75 percent of the mass of the solar system

The diameter of the sun is 190 times that of the earth

Explanation: A. The earth is the densest of all the planet. Density of Earth is 5.52, Venus

48. Consider the following countries:

Brazil
Indonesia
Japan
Russia

What is the descending order of the size of the following countries population-wise?

1, 2, 4 & 3

2, 3, 1 & 4

2, 1, 4 & 3

1, 2, 3 & 4

Explanation: C. Indonesia>Brazil>Russia>Japan.

49. Consider the following countries of South Asia:

Bangladesh
India
Pakistan
Sri Lanka

The descending order of literacy status of these countries is:

4, 2, 1 & 3

2, 4, 3 & 1

4, 2, 3 & 1

2, 4, 1 & 3

Explanation: C. According to UNESCO; 2015, the literacy rate of given countries are - Paskistan - 56.4%; India - 72.1%; Bangladesh - 72.8%; Srilanka - 92.6%.

50. Consider the following countries:

Albania
Bosnia Herzegovina
Croatia
Macedonia

Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a boundary?

1, 2 and 4

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: B. Bosnia, Hercegovina, Alabania, Croatia have Adriatic sea as a boundary. Macedonia is far away from Adriatic sea.

51. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the peninsular India from north to south is:

Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vagai

Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery and Vagai

Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar and Vagai

Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai and Pennar

Explanation: A. The correct sequence of eastward flowing river of the peninsular India from north to south is Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vagai.

52. India's population growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match List-I (Period) with List-II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. 1901-1921 1. Steady growth
B. 1921 -1951 2. Rapid high growth
C. 1951-1981 3. Stagnant growth
D. 1981 -2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown

Codes:

A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4

A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2

Explanation: C. 1901

53. With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the following statements:

Indian railway system is the largest in the world
National Highways cater to 45 percent of the total and transport demand
Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road
National Highway No. 7 is the longest in the country

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

2 and 4

Explanation: D. Indian railway is the fourth largest railway in the world after USA, Russia and China. National Highways is nearly 2% (1.96%) of total roads, but it carries nearly 40

54. The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26

Allahabad

Chennai

Cherrapunji

Kolkata

Explanation: B. The climatic condition of Chennai is tropical savanna type where the average annual temperature of meterological station is 26

55. The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South America?

Goa

Gujarat

Orissa

Tamil Nadu

Explanation: C. The sea coast of Orissa is famous as a nesting place for giant olive Ridley turtles from South America.

56. With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 millimetres of annual rainfall

The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells

Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in northern plains of the country

The mountain areas account for about thirty percent of the surface area of the country

Explanation: B. As per data of 2010

57. Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in:

Eastern Orissa

North-Eastern Tamil Nadu

Shivalik and Terai region

Western Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: D. Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in the area where the rainfall is less than 80 cm. Such areas are found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Haryana and western Andhra Pradesh.

58. Match List-I (Mangrove) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: D. Achra Ratnagiri Mangrove is in Maharashtra, Coondapur Mangrove is in Karnataka, Pichavaram Mangrove is in Tamil Nadu and Vembanad Mangrove is in Kerala.

59. With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?

About 90 percent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed

Share of pulses in the gross cropped are at the national level has doubled in the last two decades.

India accounts for about 15 percent of the total area under rice in the world

Rice occupies about 34 percent of the gross cropped are in India

Explanation: A. In Indian agriculture about 90% of the area under pulse is rainfed, but pulses need less water for cultivation so, the production of pulse hampers.

60. Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India:

Arjun
Jaya
Padma
Sonalika

Which of these are of wheat?

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 4

3 and 4

Explanation: C. Arjun and Sonalika are hybrid variety of wheat produced by Indian Council of Agricultural Research.

61. With reference to Power Sector in India, consider the following statements:

Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Service under the Prime Minister
100 percent Foreign Direct Investment in power is allowed without upper limit
The Union Ministry of Power has signed a Memoranda of Understanding with 14 States

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation: B. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana was launched in order to achieve the objective of sustainable human development at the village level. It has 6 components viz., primary health, Primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water, nutrition and Rural electrification. Upto 100% FDI is allowed in respect of projects relating to electricity generation, transmission and distribution, other than atomic reactor power plants.

62. With reference to the Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:

External liabilities reported in the Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates
The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy
The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit of GDP a recent years has an adverse effect on private investment
Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 2 and 3

1 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: C. Correct option is C.

63. Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean:

Its free float with the international currencies
Its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country
It acts just like any other international currency

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: D. Capital account convertibility means free conversion of cross-border capital flows, implying that anybody can convert domestic currency into hard currency at the market rate and take the hard currency out of the country.

64. Global capital flows to developing countries increased significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial crisis and Latin American experience, which type of inflow is good for the host country?

Commercial loans

Foreign Direct Investment

Foreign Portfolio Investment

External Commercial borrowings

Explanation: B. FDI is defined as investment by a foreign multinational or its subsidiary or a foreign company in terms of setting up a project in another country either by way of a 100% subsidiary or by way of a joint venture. Thus, FDI investment is long term in nature. Thus, it cannot be pulled out of the country at short notice. It is also non-debt creating.

65. Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by:

Union Cabinet

President on the advice of Prime Minister

Planning Commission

National Development Council

Explanation: D. In India plans are formulated by Planning Commission and are finally approved by National Development Council. All state chief ministers are members of NDC. The NDC is headed by prime minister of India.

66. A country is said to be a debt trap if:

it has to borrow to make interest payments on outstanding loans

It has to abide by the conditionalities imposed by the International Monetary fund.

it has been refused loans or aid by creditors abroad

the World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on outstanding as well as new loans

Explanation: A. Debt Trap is a situation where you add on a new debt in order to repay an existing debt.

67. In terms of value, which one of the following commodities accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the three year period from 1997

Cereals

Marine products

Spices

Tea

Explanation: B. Largest agricultural exports were of marine products followed by tea and spices.

68. With reference to the Public Sector Undertakings in India, consider the following statements:

Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the largest non-oil importer of the Country.
Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Industry
One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited is to enforce quality control and compulsory pre-shipment inspection of various exportable commodities

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 only

Explanation: A. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation Limited (MMTC) is one of the two biggest foreign exchange earner for India. It is the largest international trading company of India and the first Public Sector Enterprise to be accorded the status of FIVE STAR EXPORT HOUSE by Govt. of India for long standing contribution to exports. MMTC is the largest non-oil importer in India. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

69. HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to:

proximity of raw materials

abundant supply of power

efficient transport network

proximity to the market

Explanation: B. HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut due to abundant supply of power from National Thermal Power Station, Rihand and a capative power plant at Renu Sagar. It has a cogeneration unit at the plant itself.

70. Consider the following:

Currency with the public
Demand deposits with banks
Time deposits with banks

Which of these are included in Broad Money (M3) in India?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: D. Narrow money is the most liquid part of the money supply because the demand deposits can be withdrawn anytime during the banking hours. Time deposits on the other hand have a fixed maturity period and hence cannot be withdrawn before expiry of this period. When we add the time deposits into the narrow money, we get the broad money, which is denoted by M3. M3 = Narrow money + Time Deposits of public with banks. We note here that the Broad money does not include the interbank deposits such as deposits of banks with RBI or other banks. At the same time, time deposits of public with all banks including the cooperative banks are included in the Broad Money.

71. Consider the following financial institutions of India:

Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

The correct chronological sequence of the establishment of these institutions is:

1, 2, 3 & 4

2, 3, 4 & 1

3, 4, 1 & 2

4, 1, 2 & 3

Explanation: A. IFCI

72. Assertion (A): With the increase of temperature, the viscosity of glycerine increases. Reason (R): Rise of temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.

Codes:

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: D. Statement 1 is false. The temperature dependence of liquid viscosity is the phenomenon by which liquid viscosity tends to decrease (or, alternatively, its fluidity tends to increase) as its temperature increases. Thus, with increase of temperature viscosity of glycerine decrease. Statement 2 is correct because with the rise of temperature in case of liquid, the kinetic energy increases as kinetic energy of liquid molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature.

73. Assertion (A): An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water. Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.

Codes:

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Specific gravity is the ratio of the density (mass of a unit volume) of a substance to the density (mass of the same unit volume) of a reference substance. Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.56 whereas specific gravity of iron is 7.21.Thus, iron ball floats on mercury.

74. A solid cube gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube?

12 cm

10 cm

8 cm

6 cm

Explanation: B. Correct option is B.

75. Consider the following statements:

Light of longer wavelength are scattered much more than the light of shorter wavelength.
The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times the speed in vacuum.
Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical currents.
To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use the Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 4

3 and 4

Explanation: D. Radio waves are a form of electromagnetic radiation, created whenever a charged object (in normal radio transmission, an electron) accelerates with a frequency that lies in the radio frequency (RF) portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. Thus statement 3 is correct. The Doppler's Effect shows a change in a wave's frequency received when it is either reflected from a moving object or generated on a moving object. Police radar speed detectors bounce a radio frequency wave off cars and use their internal electronics to determine the speed at which the object is moving by that frequency change. Therefore, statement 4 is also correct.

76. Consider the following natural phenomena:

Terrestrial heating
Reflection of light
Refraction of light
Diffraction of light

Due to which of these phenomena is a mirage formed?

1 and 2

2, 3 and 4

1 and 3

4 only

Explanation: C. Convection currents of hot air rising off a surface have a lower density than the air directly above it. The difference in density cause light passing through the air to refract differently, which causes the formation of mirage.

77. Match List-I (Oxidation number) with List II (The element) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. 2 1. Oxidation number of Mn inMnO2
B. 3 2. Oxidation number of S in H2S2O7
C. 4 3. Oxidation number of Ca in CaO
D. 6 4. Oxidation number of Al in NaAlH4

Codes:

A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

Explanation: A. The oxidation number characterises the oxidation state of an element in a compound. It is a full number, positive or negative, which indicates the amount of electron loss or gain by this element in the given compound, with respect to the neutral atom. Oxidation number of calcium is 2 in calcium oxide (CaO). Oxidation number of Aluminium is +3 in Sodium aluminium hydride (NaAlH4) is a chemical compound used as a reducing agent. Oxidation number of manganese is 4 in Manganese dioxide (MnO2). Oxidation number of sulphur is 6 in Pyrosulfuric Acid (H2S2O7).

78. Assertion: Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water. Reason (R): Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: A. Synthetic detergents are sodium salt of long chain sulphonic acid or alkyl hydrogen sulphate. Hardness in water is due to presence of chlorides, sulphates and nitrates salts of calcium and magnesium. Now detergents are capable of forming soluble salts even with the calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water and forms lather easily in hard water.

79. In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynoecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as

dichogamy

herkogamy

heterogamy

monogamy

Explanation: A. In bisexual flower, the male and female flowers (androecium and gynoecium) mature at different times to avoid self-fertilization. It is called dichogamy.

80. Consider the following plants

Bougainvillea
Carnations
Cocoa
Grapes

Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?

1 and 2

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: C. Bougainvillea, cocoa and grapes plants are propagated by stem cutting process.

81. In the context of organic evolution, the loss of limbs in snakes is explained by the phenomenon of

use and disuse of organs

adaptation to living in burrows

natural selection

inheritance of acquired characters

Explanation: A. In organic evolution, Lamarck believed that any particular part of the body that is put into more frequent use, has tendency to develop stronger and better while that part of body which is put into less or no use has tendency to gradually disappear. So, loss of limbs in snake is an example of use and disuse of organs.

82. When one gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called

apomixis

pleiotropy

polyploidy

polyteny

Explanation: B. Polyploidy occurs in cells and organisms when there are more than two paired (homologous) set of chromosome founds which controls more than one characters simultaneously; Apomixis is the process of asexual reproduction in which the embryo grow from egg cells without being fertilized; Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits; Polytene is a giant chromosomes found in some two-winged flies.

83. With reference to the human body, consider the following statements:

The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercises.
Men's testes produce progesterone.
Women's adrenal glands secrete testosterone
Stress causes the adrenals to release very less amount of cortisol than usual.

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 4

Explanation: D. Testes of man produce hormone testosterone and progesterone hormone is secreted by ovary of woman. Adrenal hormone releases the hormone cortisol.

84. Foot and Mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by

bacterium

fungus

protozoan

virus

Explanation: D. Foot and mouth disease in animals (hoof and mouth disease) is a viral infection affecting cloven hoofed domestic and wild animals. The viruses belong to the family picorna viridae.

85. Match List-I (Indian wild life species) with List-II (Scientific names) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Asiatic wild ass 1. Boselaphus tragocamelus
B. Barasingha 2. Cervus duvauceli
C. Chinkara 3. Equus hemionus
D. Nilgai 4. Gazella gazelle

Codes:

Explanation: B. Asiatic wild ass

86. Which one of the following is monogamous?

Wolf

Walrus

Seal

Deer

Explanation: A. Wolf is monogamous. Monogamous is the organism which has only one spouse and mate at any one time.

87. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

All echinoderms are viviparous.

Roundworm has no circulatory system.

In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present.

In cartilaginous fishes, fertilization is internal.

Explanation: A. The sexes are separate except few echinoderm species. There is no sexual dimorphism. Fertilization is external and few forms are viviparous.

88. Match List-I (Scientists) with List-II (Achievements) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. Arber and Smith 1. Developed transgenic plants with Agrobacterium T-DNA
B. Feldman 2. Discovered endonucleases
C. Mullis 3. Discovered reverse transcriptase
D. Temin and 4. Discovered polymerase Baltimore chain reaction

Codes:

Explanation: A. Arber and Smith- Discovered endonuclease; Feldman- Developed transgenic plants with Agrobacterium T-DNA; Mullis- Discovered polymerase chain reaction; Temin & Baltimore- Discovered reverse transcriptage.

89. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Prions are the smallest free-living cells.

The cell wall of Mycoplasma is made up of amino sugars

Viroids consist of single-stranded RNA molecule

Rickettsias lack cell wall

Explanation: C. Viroids are plant pathogens that consists of a short stretch of highly complementary, circular, single-stranded RNA molecule. Prion is an infectious agent composed primarily of protein. Mycoplasma is a genus of bacteria that lack of cell wall.

90. Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination. Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in the body.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true but R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: C. Urination can be induced within some minutes after a person consumes alcohol, because when the kidney filters the waste, the capillaries constricts and affects the filtering ability of kidney. When the body needs to conserve water, the pituitary gland excretes a hormone called vasopressin, which causes the nephron filters to become permeable retaining more water in the blood stream and allowing less water to be excreted in the urine. Alcohol decreases vasopressin secretion.

91. Assertion (A): Human diet should compulsorily contains glycine, serine and tyrosine. Reason (R): Essential amino acids can not be synthesized in the human body.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true both R is false

A is false but R is true

Explanation: D. Assertion is false, but reason is true. Essential amino acids are those which are taken form food and not synthesised in the body, whereas non-essential amino acids need not be supplied in the diet and synthesised in the body. Glycine serine and tyrosine are non-essential amino acids.

92. Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?

Isolation

Mutation

Natural selection

Sexual reproduction

Explanation: B. Mutation is the most responsible factor for origin of new species.

93. Ticks and mites are actually

Arachnids

Crustaceans

Insects

Myriapods

Explanation: A. Ticks and mites are categorized under order Arachnids of phylum Arthopoda of animal kingdom.

94. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?

Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body

Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood

White blood cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only

The blood has more platelets than WBC

Explanation: D. Blood has more platelets than corpuscles. A microlitre of blood contains 5,000-10,000 of White blood cells (WBC) and 150,000-500,000 platelets.

95. Match List-I (Ethnic Community) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Apatani 1. China
B. Dyak 2. India
C. Dinka 3. Indonesia
D. Uighur 4. Sudan

Codes:

A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1

A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1

A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4

Explanation: A. A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1.

96. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists:

A. International Atomic Energy Agency 1. Brussels
B. International Telecommunication 2. Geneva
C. Union Council of the European Union 3. Paris
D. OECD 4. Vienna

Codes:

A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3

A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2

A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3

Explanation: D. The headquarter of International atomic Energy Agency is in Viena. The headquarters of International Telecommunication Union is in Geneva, Headquarters of Council of the European Union is in Brussels and Headquarters of Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development is in Paris.

97. "World Development Report" is an annual publication of:

United Nations Development Programme

International Bank of Reconstruction and Development

World Trade Organisation

International Monetary Fund

Explanation: B. WDR is an annual publication of World bank i.e. International Bank of Reconstruction and Development

98. Consider the following statements:

The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a specialized agency of United Nations System of Organisations
WIPO has its headquarters at Rome
The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement is binding on all WTO members
Least developed country members of WTO are not required to apply the provisions of TRIPS Agreement for a period of 20 years from the general date of application of the Agreement

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 2, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

1 and 3

Explanation: D. WIPO has its HQ at Geneva.

99. The world's highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in:

Colombia

India

Nepal

Switzerland

Explanation: B. The world's highest ground based telescopic observatory is located at Leh in India.