Explanation: C. Article 350A was inserted by 7th Constitutional Amendment act 1956. It says, it shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups; and the President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of such facilities. Article 349

Explanation: D. Fourth schedule allocates seats in the Council of States i.e. Rajya Sabha.

Explanation: A. A-5; B-1; C-4; D-2

Explanation: A. First schedule contains names of the States and UTs, that's why it should be amended, if a new state is created.

Explanation: A. A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

Explanation: B. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur but was later moved to Halebid.

Explanation: B. Painted Greyware belonged to later Vedic period (1000

Explanation: B. To popularize the Mahayana form of Buddhism. Harshavardhana convened an assembly at Kannauj. The Prayag assembly was convened to popularize himself.

Explanation: C. In 1017, Rajendra conquered Ceylon (Srilanka). Earlier Rajaraja I conquered only half of it.

Explanation: D. Vasumitra and Ashavaghosh together presided over the fourth council. In this council Buddhists were divided into Mahayanists and Hinayanists

Explanation: A. Cow, camel, horse and lion were not depicted on seals. Unicorn (bull) was the animal most commonly represented on the seals.

Explanation: A. Lingaraja Temple was constructed by Yayati Kesari, ruler of Orissa. It is located in Bhubaneshwar.

1. A. Namdev 1. Barber
2. B. Kabir 2. Weaver
3. C. Ravidas 3. Tailor
4. D. Sena 4. Cobbler

Codes:

Explanation: B. A

Explanation: C. Mongols under Chengiz Khan (died in 1227) invaded India during the reign of Iltutmish (1211-36), but did not enter deep in India as Iltutmish refused to give shelter to the Persian king, Khwarizm Shah, whom Chengiz Khan was chasing.

Explanation: D. Surat was called Gate of Makka because the pilgrimage to Makka started from Surat.

Explanation: A. Dewan-i-Bandagani (Department of Slaves) was constituted by Firoz Tughlaq; Dewan-i-Mustakhraj (Dept of Arrears)

Explanation: A. Battle of Khanua (1527, Rana Sanga was defeated by Babar); First Battle of Panipat (1526, Ibrahim Lodhi was defeated by Babur). Rana Sangha once defeated Ibrahim Lodhi so R explains A.

Explanation: D. Tipu Sultan established embassies in France, Turkey and Egypt on modern lines.

Explanation: D. Meena Kumari is not the recipient of Bharat Ratna.

Explanation: B. John Shore planned Permanent Settlement and it was introduced in 1793 by Lord Cornwallis. Zamindars were made the owners of the land and the British got a fixed share of 10/11th of the revenue collected by the zamindars.

1. Arya Samaj was founded in 1835.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai opposed the appeal of Arya Samaj to the authority of Vedas in support of its social reform programme.
3. Under Keshab Chandra Sen, the Brahmo Samaj campaigned for women's education.
4. Vinoba Bhave founded the Sarvodya Samaj to work among refugees.

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: D. Arya Samaj was founded in 1875 (not 1835) at Bombay by Dayananda Saraswati. Lala Lajpat Rai joined the Arya Samaj. His journal Arya Gazette concentrated mainly on subjects related to the Arya Samaj. He never opposed Arya Samaj.

Explanation: B. Charles Wilkins was a member of Asiatic Society of Bengal founded by William Jones. He translated Bhagavad Gita into English in 1794.

Explanation: B. Hunter Commission was appointed after the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919). A separate Hunter Commission(1882-83) emphsised on primary and secondary education.

Explanation: B. Hasrat Mohani

Explanation: B. The raid was conducted in April 1930 by Surya Sen and involved 65 activists under the banner of Indian Republican army

Explanation: B. Syed Ameer Ali established a branch of the League in London in 1908, supporting the same objectives.

Explanation: C. The All India States Peoples' Conference was a political organization in India during the British Raj. The first session of the organisation was held in Bombay in December 1927. Nehru was its president between 1935

1. A. Kalamandalam Kshemavaty 1. Kathakali
2. B. Kottakkal Sivaraman 2. Manipuri
3. C. Lakshmi Viswanathan 3. Mohiniattam
4. D. N. Madhabi Devi 4. Bharatanatyam

Codes:

Explanation: C. The correct match is as follows: Kalamandalam Kshemavaty

Explanation: D. Meena Kumari is not the recipient of Bharat Ratna.

Explanation: A. Lingaraja Temple was constructed by Yayati Kesari, ruler of Orissa. It is located in Bhubaneshwar.

Explanation: A. In stormy weather condition the pressure of atmosphere varies, which causes sudden fall in barometer reading.

Explanation: A. Aristotle in 340 B.C first stated that the earth was spherical in his book "On the Heaven".

Explanation: A. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer then the observer is at the equator because celestical equator is an imaginary circle around the sky directly above the earth's equator. It is always 90

1. Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth's surfaceby the hydrological system
2. Formation of sedimentary rocks involves theweathering of preexisting rocks
3. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils
4. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: D. All the statements are true about the sedimentary rock.

Explanation: A. The basaltic rock found in Baltic sea is transported by glacier.

Explanation: C. Quartzite is a metamorphosed form of sandstone.

Explanation: A. The correct order of soil erosion process is splash erosion, sheet erosion, rill erosion and gully erosion. Splash occurs when the raindrop hits the surface; explosive impact soil into individual particles. Sheet erosion is the detachment of soil particles by rain drop and their removal down slope by water flowing overland as a sheet in definite channels. Rill erosion refers to the development of small ephemeral concentrated flow paths which function as both sedimentary source and sediment delivery systems for erosion on hill slopes. Sheet erosion removes the this top layer by raindrop kill or orion occurs in lines which are less than 30 cm deep when these rills are deeper than 30 forming channels are called as gully erosion. Gully erosion occurs when water flows in narrow channels after heavy rain and melting snow.

Identify the region having the above climatic patterns from amongst the following:

Explanation: A. Concentration of Rainfall in winter and dry, warm summers is the characteristic of Mediterranean or western margin climate.

Explanation: C. The sun, the earth and the moon come in the position of quadrature (form-a right angle) on seventh and eighth day of every fortnight of a month and thus the tide producing forces of the sun and the moon works in opposite direction, causing low tide. This is lower in height than the normal tide and is called neap tide. But the spring tide occurs during full moon and are called high tides.

Explanation: B. Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly have pouches or pocket of skin, where the mother nurses their young. These marsupians are found in Australia. The common example of marsupians are Kangaroo and Koala.

Explanation: C. The given map is the union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli in western India. The capital is at Silvasa and major language of this Union Territory is Gujarati.

1. A. Fohn 1. Argentina
2. B. Sarmun 2. Kurdistan
3. C. Santa Ana 3. Californi
4. D. Zonda 4. Alps

Codes:

Explanation: B. Fohn is the warm and dry wind of Alps region. Sarmun is the local wind of Kuristan region, Santa Ana is the local wind of California and Zonda is the local wind of Argentina.

1. Bishkek
2. Ashikhabad
3. Tashkent
4. Dushanbe

Codes:

Explanation: A. Ashikabad is marked as '1'; Tashkent is marked as '2'; Bishken is marked as '3'; Dushanbe is marked as '4' in the given map.

1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves
2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan.
3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal education in environment and conservation
4. Environmental Information System (ENVIS) acts as a decentralized information network for environment information

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: B. All the statements given in the options are correct.

Explanation: D. In the given figure of India, Mica is found in all the states of India like Jharkhand, Orissa, Bihar, Rajasthan, Bombay, Karnataka, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation: C. In the given map, the shaded area indicates the tropical wet and dry region, where the mean temperature for the month of July varies between 27.5

Explanation: B. Mekong

Explanation: A. Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion. In north India, a feeble high-pressure region develops, with light winds moving outwards from this area. Influenced by the relief, these winds blow through the Ganga valley from west and north west, which forms an anticyclonic condition in northern part of India.

1. The installed capacity of power generation is around 95000 MW
2. Nuclear plants contribute nearly 15% of total power generation
3. Hydroelectricity plants contribute nearly 40% of total power generation
4. Thermal plants at present account for nearly 80% of total power generation

Which of the statements is/are correct?

Explanation: A. According to the data of 2000, the power generation is 95000 MW. Nuclear plants contribute 2% of total power generation. Hydroelectricity plants contribute 25% of total production and 73% is contributed by thermal power plants.

Explanation: A. The Aravallis range are the oldest mountain in India. The approximate age of the Aravallis is 670 million years.

Explanation: A. Due to availability of fertile alluvial soil intensive agricultural practices was possible in the Nile river and islands of Java. So, in this regions high density of population is found.

Explanation: D. Per capita real income is nothing but NNP at factor cost. It means national income is sum total of all factor incomes adjusted for increase in prices.

Codes:

Explanation: A. Revenue deficit = revenue receipts

1. Corporation tax
2. Customs duty
3. Wealth tax
4. Excise duty

Which of these is/are indirect taxes?

Explanation: B. Indirect taxes are the charges that are levied on goods and services. Some of the significant indirect taxes include Value Added Tax, Central Sales Tax, Central Excise Duty, Customs Duty, stamp duties and expenditure tax. Property tax, Corporation tax and Wealth tax are examples of direct taxes.

Explanation: C. Gross national product at market price minus depreciation minus indirect tax plus subsidies.

Explanation: C.

Explanation: B. Procurement price is the support price at which the government will buy whatever quantum farmers wants to sell to the government in the event of private traders not buying the product. This is done to give a fair price to the farmer and to create a buffer stock of food grains to meet public distribution system requirements.

1. Market borrowing
2. Treasury bills
3. Special securities issued to RBI

Which of these is/are components(s) of internal debt?

Explanation: D. Internal debt is that part of the total debt that is owed to lenders within the country. Market borrowings, Treasury bills and special securities issued to RBI are all sources of internal borrowings.

Explanation: D. In the given bar diagram the annual production of "Rice" for the period 1991

Explanation: A. The only negative factor is the time difference which causes large employee turnover as most IT work is conducted during night shift.

1. Gujarat
2. Karnataka
3. Maharashtra
4. Tamil Nadu

The descending order of these states with reference to their level of Per Capita Net State Domestic Product is:

Explanation: B. Maharasthra>Gujarat>Karnataka>Tamil Nadu

1. It is a banker to the Central Government
2. It formulates and administers monetary policy
3. It acts as an agent of the Government in respect of India
4. It handles the borrowing programme of Government of India

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: C. Functions of RBI: sole authority to issue currency; government's bank; banker's bank; guardian of money market; lender of the last resort; sole reservoir of Foreign exchange reserves; controller of credit; clearing house for settling inter bank transactions. It follows an independent monetary policy.

Explanation: D. DNA found in mitochondria other than nucleus. The DNA is called mitochondrial DNA.

Explanation: B. Athlete's Foot disease is caused by parasitic fungus of genus Trichophyton. Scaling, flaking and itching of affected areas are the symptoms of this disease. This disease transmitted in moist areas where people walk bare foot.

Explanation: B. An epiphyte is a plant normally grows on another plant for support. It is non parasitic, but uses the host plant for support. A plant such as tropical orchid or staghorn fern, that grows on another plant upon, which it depends for mechanical support but not for nutrients.

Explanation: A. There is no A and B antigen on RBC of "O

Explanation: D. A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1.

Explanation: A. Double helix structure of DNA contains 2 complementary strands which transmits genetic transmits information from generation to generation.

Explanation: B. Metastasis is the spread of cancer from its primary site to other places in the body (i.e. brain, liver). Cancer cells can break away from a primary tumour, penetrate into lymphatic and blood vessels, circulate through the blood stream and grow to a normal tissues in the body.

Explanation: A. Ptyalin

Explanation: D. Antigen is a foreign molecule, which invade the body of organism, and induce immune response to stimulate antibody/generation/production.

Explanation: B. Ribosome and Endoplasmic reticulum are main sites for protein synthesis. Ribosome, which serve as staging area where some RNA helps in protein synthesis. Endoplasmic reticulum is an irregular, double membrane network scattered in cytoplasm, also helps in protein synthesis.

Explanation: A. Apoptosis is the process of programmed cell death in multicellular organisms. Apoptosis occurs during normal cell turnover, development and in immune system; Ageing is the accumulation of changes; Degeneration is the deterioration of a tissue or an organ in which its function is diminished or its structure impaired; Necrosis is the cellular death without any programming.

1. A. Breast-bone 1. Clavicle
2. B. Collar-bone 2. Patella
3. C. Knee-cap 3. Scapul
4. D. Shoulder blade 4. Sternum

Codes:

Explanation: D. Breast bone

1. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite
2. Round-worm has separate sexes
3. Filaria is caused by a nematode.3. Filaria is caused by a nematode.
4. Guinea-worm is an annelid.

Which of these are correct?

Explanation: B. Tape worms are hermaphrodite (both male and female reproductive organ present); Round worms are unisexual (separate sex); Filaria is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti which is a parasitic nematode; Guinea worm is a long and very thin nematode, not an annelid.

Explanation: C. Mass is a universal constant. The mass of a body remains unchanged in any part of universe. Mass of a body does not change with respect to gravity. It is the weight that changes with gravity.

1. the acceleration is zero when the bob passes through the mean position.
2. in each cycle the bob attains a given velocity twice.
3. both acceleration and velocity of the bob are zero when it reaches its extreme position during the oscillation.
4. the amplitude of oscillation of the simple pendulum decreases with time.

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: C. statement 3 is not correct.

Explanation: D. Figure (d) correctly represents the time-distance graph for one dimensional uniform motion

Explanation: B. 10 ohm.

1. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions.
2. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. the fast neutrons are slowed down by graphite.
4. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: A. A nuclear reactor is a device to initiate and control a sustained nuclear chain reaction. The most common use of nuclear reactors is for the generation of electrical power and for the power in some ships. In every fission reaction in which uranium nuclei splits up to give smaller nuclei three more neutrons are produced which further results into splitting of heavy uranium nuclei and more number of neutrons will be produced. Thus, statement, 1 and 2 are correct. In nuclear reactor all the neutrons produced cannot take part in fission reaction, else reaction can turn out extremely violent. Thus, graphite rods are used as a control rods to slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons. Thus, statement 3 is also correct.

Explanation: A. Aufbau principle states that 'in the ground state of the atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies, starting with the orbital of lowest energy.' The word aufbau is German word which means building up. The increasing order of energy and hence that of filling of orbitals is as follows: 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p, 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p.

Explanation: C. As it is given that half life of given substance is 4 months. The amount of substance left after 4 months =

Explanation: D. Zirconium is non-radioactive substance as the substance which have atomic number above 80 shows radioactivity. The rest three Astatine, Francium and Tritium are radioactive in nature. There are five naturally occurring isotopes of Zirconium: Zirconium- 90, Zirconium-91, Zirconium-92, Zirconium-94 and Zirconium-96. Natural Zirconium has two radioactive isotopes 94Zr & 96Zr. Three stable isotopes of Zirconium also found in nature, which account for 79.82% of the total amount.

1. A. Zero mass 1. Positron
2. B. Fractional charge 2. Neutrino
3. C. Fractional spin 3. Quark
4. D. Integral spin 4. Photon

Codes:

Explanation: A. The Standard Model of particle physics assumed that neutrino are massless. A quark is an elementary particle and a fundamental constituent of matter. Quarks have fractional electric charge values either

Explanation: C. Aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature because copper sulphate on dissolving with water, following chemical reaction takes place. CuSO4(s) + 2H2O ? Cu(OH)2(l) + H2SO4(aq). Now as we can see in above chemical equation the sulphuric acid generated is strong mineral acid which results into increase in acidity of solution. Thus aqueous solution of copper sulphate is acidic in nature.

1. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period.
2. In a group of elements, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases.
3. In a given period, electro-negativity decreases as the atomic number increases.

Which of these statement (s) is/are correct?

Explanation: B. The electron affinity of a molecule or atom is the energy change when an electron is added to the neutral atom to form a negative ion. This property can only be measured in an atom in gaseous state. X + e

Explanation: A. As molecular weight increases with increase in the length of carbon-carbon chain.

1. International Bank for Reconstruction andDevelopment
2. International Finance Corporation
3. International Fund for Agricultural Development
4. International Monetary Fund

Which of these are agencies of the United Nations?

Explanation: D. All the Agencies given in the question are the part of the United Nations.

Explanation: B. "The Struggle in My Life" is written by Nelson Mandela, " The Struggle and the Triump" is written by Lech Walsesa, "Friends and Foes" is written by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and "Rebirth" is written by Leonid Brezhenev, the former president of U.S.S.R

Explanation: D. Falun Gong is a spiritual movement in China against which the Chinese authorities have taken stren action.

Explanation: D. "Chandra" X-ray telescope has been named after famous physicist of Indian origin Subramanyam Chandrasekhar.

Explanation: D. World Environment Day

Explanation: B. GATT

1. I.S.R.O
2. I.I.R.S.
3. N.R.S.A
4. S.A.C.

Codes:

Explanation: D. ISRO is situated in Banglore, which is marked as '4', Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is located in Dehradun which is marked as '1', National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) is situated in Hyderabad, marked as '3' and Space Application Centre (SAC) is situated in Ahmedabad which is marked as '2' in the map.

Explanation: C. Maharashtra is the state where 6.39% of population is Buddhist. They are 5.84 million Buddhists found in Maharashtra according to 2001 census. It is 73.5% of total Buddhist population.

1. A. Central Institute of medicinal and Aromatic Plants 1. Chandigarh
2. B. Centre for DNA Finger Printing and Diagnostics 2. Hyderabad
3. C. Institute of Microbial Technology 3. New Delhi
4. D. National Institute of Immunology 4. Lucknow

Codes:

Explanation: B. The central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic plants is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh center for DNA finger printing and diagnosis is located in Hyderabed of Andhra pradesh, Institute of Microbial technology is situated in Chandigrah and National Institute of Immunology is located in New Delhi.

1. The Government of India has notified five communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as Minorities
2. The National Commission for Minorities was given statutory status in 1993
3. The smallest religious minority in India are the Zoroastrians
4. The Constitution of India recognizes and protects religious and linguistic minorities

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: B. As per current data, The following communities have been notified as minority communities by the Government of India, Ministry of Minority Affairs; Sikhs, Muslims, Christians, Zoroastrians, Buddhists and Jains. The first statutory National Commission was set up on 17th May 1993. Jains form the smallest religious minority in India.

1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration
2. Heavy Water Board
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India

Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?

Explanation: D. All the four organisations are under the department of Atomic energy.

1. First batch of women pilots was commissioned in Indian Air Force in 1996
2. Officers' Training Academy is located in Nagpur
3. Southern Command of Indian Navy has it headquarters at Chennai.
4. One of the Regional Headquarters of Coast Guard is located at Port Blair

Which of these statements are correct?

Explanation: D. Officer's Training Academy (OTA) is located in Chennai and Gaya. The Southern command of Indian navy has its headquarters at cochin not in Chennai. The Regional Headquarters of coast Guard are located at Mumbai, Chennai and Port Blair. The First batch of Women Pilots was commissioned in Indian Force in 1994.

Explanation: D. Narasimhan committee was constituted on financial sector reforms in 1991 and on banking sector reforms in 1998.