upsc general study 10years pape

GS Paper 1

By Year
By Subject

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 2000

1. Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?

A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament

The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not

The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days

The President cannot return a Money Bill to Lok Sabha for reconsideration

Explanation: A. A money bill can be introduced only in LS(not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.

2. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the

generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the underemployed men and women in rural area

generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous of work during the lean agricultural season

laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country

guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and equal protection without discrimination

Explanation: C. 73rd Amendment act added Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution and Part IX, which provides for the Panchayati Raj System.

3. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as

decorum

crossing the floor

interpellation

yielding the floor

Explanation: D. Decorum means maintaining proper behavior. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorized in the rules.

4. Consider the following statements about the AttorneyGeneral of India:

He is appointed by the President of India.
He must have the same qualifications as are required for a Judge of the Supreme Court.
He must be a member of either House of Parliament.
He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 2

1 and 3

2, 3 and 4

3 and 4

Explanation: A. Under Article 76, impeachment procedure of the Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

5. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to

distribute revenue between the Centre and the States

prepare the Annual Budget

advise the President on financial matters

allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments

Explanation: A. According to Article 280 it shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to (1) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds; (2) the principles which should govern the grants in aid of the revenues of the states out of Consolidated Fund of India; (3) any other matter referred to the commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the performance of their functions as parliament may by law confer on them.

6. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties

with the consent of all the States

with the consent of the majority of States

with the consent of the States concerned

without the consent of any State

Explanation: D. It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.

7. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha is

Bihar

Gujarat

Uttar Pradesh

Madhya Pradesh

Explanation: D. Madhya Pradesh is the state, where the largest number of seats are reserved for scheduled tribe in the Lok Sabha.

8. Consider the following functionaries:

Cabinet Secretary
Chief Election Commissioner
Union Cabinet Ministers
Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the Order of Precedence is

3, 4, 2, 1

4, 3, 2, 2

4, 3, 2, 1

3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation: C. Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner and Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of Precedence.

9. A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that

he obtains permission from the Principal of his college

he is a member of a political party

his name figures in the Voters' List

he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India

Explanation: D. Provision given in option D is not included under 73rd Amendment Act 1993.

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayat 4. Meghalaya

Codes:

A-2, B-1. C-4, D-3

A-1, B-2, C-1, D-4

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Explanation: D.

11. The following news item appeared in a National daily dated 1 12-1999: "...Parliament today rejected a Bill to grant women the right to vote and stand for office in parliamentary elections, by a margin of 32 to 30. The National Assembly was split between liberal, progovernment and Shiite Muslim deputies who were in favour of women's rights, while the opposition camp grouped Sunni Muslim fundamentalists and tribal MPs. A total of 64 MPs and Ministers were present, of whom two abstained." The Parliament referred to in this quotation is that of

Kuwait

Iran

Bahrain

Saudi Arabia

Explanation: B. Kuwait's all-male parliament rejected granting women full political rights. The Vote was 32 to 30 with 2 abstentions. With 64 members present, the bill needed 33 votes to pass.

12. Assertion (A): The Aham and Puram poems of the Padinen Kilukanakku group formed a continuation of the Sangam composition. Reason (R): They were included under the Post-Sangam works as against the Sangam works proper.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. The didactic works of sangam period are called Kilukanakku (18 minor groups) consisting of Tirukkural and Naladiyar. The aha mans Puram poems of the Kilukanakku group were composed in Post-sangam period. That

13. Assertion (A): The emphasis of Jainism on non-violence (ahimsa) prevented agriculturalists from embracing Jainism. Reason (R): Cultivation involved killing of insects and pests.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. both statements are true but reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.

14. Assertion (A): The origin of feudal system in ancient India can be traced to military campaigns. Reason (R): There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the Gupta period.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. Both the statements are true but do not explain each other.

15. Assertion (A): Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan Empire. Reason (R): Kalinga controlled the land and sea routes to South India.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Ashoka annexed kalinga to the Mauryan empire in 261 BC. Though Ashoka abandoned the policy of Physical occupation in favour of Policy of Cultural conquest after the Kalinga War, yet he retained Kalinga after its conquest and incorporated it into his empire. Thus R explains A.

16. The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by the

Greeks

Shakas

Parthians

Mughals

Explanation: A. Greeks first introduced military governship in India. They appointed their Governors called Strategos.

17. Which one of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander's invasion?

Nanda

Maurya

Sunga

Kanva

Explanation: A. Alexander invaded India in 326 BC. Nandas were ruling over India at that time. The Chronological order of these 4 dynasties was: Nanda , Maurya, Sunga and Kanvas.

18. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Codes:

A-1, B-3, C-2. D-4

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Explanation: B. Under the Mahalwari system, revenue, settlement was to be made by village or estates with the landlords. In the Ryotwari system, a direct settlement was made between the government and the ryot (cultivator). In the zamindari system, land is allotted to revenue farmers of Zamindars (rent Collectors).

19. Who among the following streamlined the Maratha administration after Sambhaji?

Raja Ram

Balaji Viswanath

Ganga Bai

Nanaji Deshmukh

Explanation: B. Best answer is Balaji Viswanath. As Sambhaji were succeded by rajaram, Shivaji II, Tarabai and Shahu ji. Balaji Viswanath played a crucial role in the final victory of Shahu by winning over almostall the Maratha Sardars to the side of Shahu. Under Baji Rao I Maratha power reached a zenith. But that option is not given.

20. The given map refers to the kingdom of

Akbar at the time of capture of Khandesh in 1601

Akbar at the time of his death in 1605

Aurangzeb at the time of capture of Hyderabad

Aurangzeb at the time of his death in 1707

Explanation: A.

21. Consider the following events:

Reign of Krishna Deva Raya of Vijayanagara.
Construction of Qutab Minar.
Arrival of Portuguese in India.
Death of Firoz Tughlaq.

Correct Chronological sequence of these events is:

2, 4, 3, 1

2, 4, 1, 3

4, 2, 1, 3

4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation: A. Region of Krishna Deva of Vijayanagara (1509-30); Construction of Qutub Minar(1206-1210); Arrival of Portuguese in India(1498); Death of Firoz Tughlaq (1388).

22. List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Iqta 1. Marathas
B. Jagir 2. Delhi Sultans
C. Amaram 3. Mughals
D. Mokasa 4. Vijayanagara

Codes:

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation: B. Iqta system was started by Delhi Sultanate; Jagir was allotted by Mughal rulers, Amaram, land grant was made b Vijayanagara rulers and Mokasa and grant was given by Maratha rulers.

23. Which one of the following Muslim rulers was hailed as the 'Jagadguru' by his Muslim subjects because of his belief in secularism?

Husain Shah

ZainulAbidin

Ibrahim Adil Shah

Mahmud II

Explanation: C. Ibrahim Adil Shah of Bijapur was a secular ruler. He was called

24. The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of

Dufferin

Dalhousie

Lytton

Curzon

Explanation: B. The last major extension of British Indian Territory took place during Dalhousie under his Doctrine of Lapse (Jhansi, Satara, Jaitpur, Sambalpur, Udaipur and Nagpur) and on the basis of misgovernance (Awadh).

25. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Goa attained full statehood in 1987

Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat

Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India

Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954

Explanation: D. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was under Portuguese colonial rule till 1954 and not French colonial rule.

26. "In this instance we could not play off the Mohammedans against the Hindus". To which one of the following events did this remark of Aitchison relate?

Revolt of 1857

Champaran Satyagraha (1917)

Khilafat and NonCooperation Movement (1919-22)

August Movement of 1942

Explanation: A. The Hindu-Muslim unity in the Revolt of 1857 was indirectly acknowledged by Aitchison a senior British official bitterly complained and said the above statement.

27. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?

Diarchy at the Centre as well as in the provinces

A bicameral legislature

Provincial autonomy

An All India Federation

Explanation: A. Dyarchy was introduced at centre but not in the provinces. Dyarchy was introduced in the provinces through Govt. of India Act, 1919 but it was abolished by Government of India Act, 1935.

28. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in

Japan

Burma

Singapore

Malaya

Explanation: C. During Second Phase, INA came into existence in july 1943 under the leadership of S.C. Bose. The idea of INA was first conceived in September 1942 by Mohan Singh in Malaya.

29. As an alternative to the partition of India, Gandhiji suggested to Mountbatten that he

postpone granting of independence

invite Jinnah to form the government

invite Nehru and Jinnah to form the government together

invite the army to take over for some time

Explanation: B. Mountbatten plan came into existence on June 3, 1947. Gandhiji suggested that he should invite Jinnah to form the government rather than partition of India.

30. The native State of Tripura became involved in the Freedom Movement early in the 20th century because

the kings of Tripura were always anti British

the Bengal revolutionaries took shelter in Tripura

the tribes of the State were fiercely freedom loving

there were already some groups fighting against the kingship and its protector, the British

Explanation: B. The native state Tripura became involved in the Freedom Movement early in the 20th century because of the presence of Bengali Revolutionaries who took shelter in Tripura.

31. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in

Chauri-Chaura

Dandi

Champaran

Bardoli

Explanation: C. Gandhiji returned from South Africa in 1915 and in 1917 he launched his first successful Satyagraha in Champaran against the indigo planters at the insistence of Rajkumar Shukla.

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Chittagong Armoury Raid 1. Kalpana Dutt
B. Abhinav Bharat 2. Guru Ram Singh
C. Anushilan Samiti 3. Vikram Damodar Savarkar
D. Kuka Movement 4. Aurobindo Ghosh

Codes:

A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

A-3, B-1, C-4, d-2

Explanation: A. Kalpana Dutt related to Chittagong Armoury Raid under the leadership of Surya sen. Abhinava Bharat was a revolutionary organization founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar. Aurobindo Ghosh was related to Anushilan Samiti. Kuka movement was led by Guru ram singh in Punjab.

33. Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgo described the Quit India Movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Sepoy mutiny. Reason (R): Peasants joined the movement in large number in some places.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Due to involvement of Peasants, the Quit India Movement became one of the biggest and most widespread movement, this led Linlithgow to call this movement most serious after Sepoy Mutiny.

34. Assertion (A): The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social base. Reason (R): It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups which joined it.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: C. Early nationalists fought for the rights of common people also for narrow interests of social groups that joined but at that time their organization was weak and it could be crushed by the British at any point of time so they followed the method of Prayer and Petition.

35. At the time of partition of India, which one of the following provinces of the British India came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence?

Punjab

Assam

Bengal

Bihar

Explanation: A. During the time of Partition of India, Punjab province came forward with a plan for a united and independent existence, but it was due to the effort of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel that PEPSU came into existing consisting Eastern Punjab Patiala and Hilly states.

36. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brainchild of

W. Churchill

M. A. Jinnah

Lord Mountbatten

V. P. Menon

Explanation: C. Balkan plan was the brainchild of Lord Mountbatten. He was authorized by British Governmnet to resolve the situation India.

37. Consider the following statements about the Indian National Congress

Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to be the President of the Congress.
C.R. Das was in prison when he functioned as the President of the Congress.
The first Britisher to become the President of the Congress was Alan Octavian Hume.
Alfred Webb was the President of the Congress in 1894.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 3

2 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: B. Sarojini Naidu was second woman to be the President of Congress, first being Annie Besant in 1917. A O Hume was the founder of Congress, but he never became its President. Hence statements 2 and 4 are correct.

38. While delivering the presidential address, the Congress President who advocated the introduction of Roman script for Hindi language was

Mahatma Gandhi

Jawaharlal Nehru

Abul Kalam Azad

Subhas Chandra Bose

Explanation: D. While delivering the Presidential address in 1938, Subash Chandra Bose advocated the introduction of Roman Script for Hindi language.

39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Explanation: A. Balamurali Krishna associate with Carnatic vocal, Mita Pandit associated with Hindustani Vocal. Kanya Kumari associated with Violin, Nikhil bannerjee is an eminent sitarist of Maihae Gharana.

40. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Bakti ltihas : Badal Sarkar

Sita Swayamvar : Vishnu Das Bhave

Yayati : Girish Karnad

Giddha : Jabbar Patel

Explanation: D. Giddh is play, written by Vijay Tendulkar. It is based on accused and greedy people.

41. The Raga which is sung early in the morning is

Todi

Darbari

Bhopali

Bhimpalasi

Explanation: A. Raga Todi is primarily sung early in the morning period. Raga Darbari is played in night which is thought to have brought into North Indian music by Miyan tansen. Raag bhopali is sung in night. Rag Bhim palas is sung in Day.

42. Consider the following statements regarding the Chakiarkoothu form of dance:

It is performed by Chakiar caste
It cannot be traditionally witnessed by the higher caste Hindus
Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument
Its theatre form is called koothambalam

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

Explanation: D. Chakiarkoothu is a performance art from Kerala. It is primarily a type of highly refined monolog where the performer narrates episodes from Hindu epics i.e, the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

43. Along which one of the following meridians did India experience the first light of the sunrise of the new millennium?

Explanation: D. The first light of the sunrise of new millennium in India experienced at kathal Island of Andaman and Nicobar, which is located at 92

44. Consider the following statements:

Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing.
High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely.
Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: D. All the statements are correct. Tides are great help in navigation and fishing (as Tides affect the reproductive activity of fish).

45. Consider the following provinces of former Yugoslavia:

Bosnia
Croatia
Slovenia
Yugoslavia

The correct sequence of these provinces from the east to the west is

4, 1, 3, 2

4, 1, 2, 3

1, 4, 3, 2

1, 4, 2, 3

Explanation: A. The correct sequence from east to west is Yugoslavia, Bosnia, Slovenia and Croatia.

46. Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda?

Chad

Malawi

Victoria

Zambezi

Explanation: C. Lake Victoria acts as the International boundary between Tanzania and Uganda. It is the largest lake in Africa and 2nd widest fresh water body in the world.

47. Which one of the following statements is not true?

Ghaggar's water is utilised in the Indira Gandhi Canal

Narmada rises from Amarkantak region

Nizam Sagar is situated on the Manjra river

Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari

Explanation: A. Indira Gandhi canal originated fro Harike barrage at Sultanpur on Sutlej but Ghaggar is a tributary of river Saraswati, which ends in the Thar desert.

48. Match the locations of ports labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with the names of those ports and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the ports: Names of Ports:

Veraval
Karwar
Tuticorin
Kakinada

Codes:

A-4, C-3, D-1

A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Explanation: B. In the given map A marked port is Veraval of Gujarat, B marked port is Karwar of Karnataka, C marked port is Tuticorin of Tamil Nadu and D marked port is Kakinada of Andhra Pradesh.

49. Which one of the following pairs of primitive tribes and places of their inhabitation is not correctly matched?

Buksa : PauriGarhwal

Kol : Jabalpur

Munda : Chhotanagpur

Korba : Kodagu

Explanation: D. Korba tribe is found in Chhotanagpur of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand, whereas kodagu a district in Karnataka.

50. Assertion (A): The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of decades. Reason (R): There has been reduction in the depth of river valleys due to deposition of silt.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Siltation is the process of deposition of silt on the river bed through rain water, by which the depth of the river river reduces. The flood water crosses the river embankment, by which flood occurs in most part of north India.

51. Assertion (A): Ganga Plain is the most denselypopulated part of India. Reason (R): Ganga is the most harnessed river of India.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. The ganga plain is most important plain of India. The gangetic plain covers more than a fourth of the country's total surface. The alluvial fertile soil is very suitable for cultivation of different cereals, pulses and nuts. So bulk of the population resides in this plain area.

52. Match the different ports of Union Territory of Pondicherry labelled as A, B, C and D in the given map with their respective names and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list of ports: List of Ports of Pondicherry:

Karaikal
Mahe
Pondicherry
Yanam

Codes:

A-2, B-1, C-3, d-4

A-1, B-2, c-3, D-4

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Explanation: A. A- Mahe; B-Karaikal; C-Pondicherry; D- Yaman.

53. Assertion (A): In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk. Reason (R): Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. Assertion is correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion but the statement is true. In Australia farmers rear cattle for meat export and most of the Australian people are non-vegetarians.

54. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is

Maharashtra, U.P., Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

U.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

Maharashtra, U.P., Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

U.P., Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

Explanation: B. Uttara Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil nadu and Andhra Pradesh is the correct descending order of Sugarcane producing states in India.

55. Consider the following statements about the megacities of India:

Population of each megacity is more than 5 million.
All the megacities are important sea ports.
Megacities are either national or State capitals.

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2

2 and 3

1 and 3

Explanation: D. All the mega cities of India are not important sea ports. E.g: Delhi which is the country capital and a mega city is not located near the sea and is also not a port city.

56. Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo?

Calcutta

Kandla

Mumbai

Visakhapatnam

Explanation: D. Visakhapatnam is situated in Eastern coast of India in Andhra Pradesh. It handles the highest tonnage of import cargo.

57. Match the cities labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in the given map with the names of the institutes located in these cities and select the correct answer using the codes given below the names of the institutes.

Explanation: B. Central marine fisheries Research Institute is located in Cochin which is marked 5 in the map. Central Sheep Breeding Farm is located in Hissar which is marked 2 in the map. National Dairy Research Institute is situated in Karnal which is marked 1 in the map and National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management is situated in Bangalore which is marked 4 in the map.

58. Consider the following statements:

Maharashtra has the highest acreage under jawar in India.
Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India.
Rajasthan has the largest area of cultivable wastelands in India.
Andhra Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in India.

Which of these statements are correct?

1 and 4

2 and 3

1 and 3

2 and 4

Explanation: C. Maharashtra has the highest acreage under Jowar cultivation followed by Karnataka. Gujarat is the largest producer of groundnut in India with a share more than 50%. Rajasthan has the highest cultivable wasteland in India. Madhaya Pradesh has the highest per hectare yield of maize in India and the largest producer of maize.

59. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Atlas Cycle Company Ltd 1.Bangalore
B. Bharat Earth Movers Ltd 2. Bhubaneswar
C. Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd. 3. Kalol
D. National Aluminium Company Ltd. 4. Sonepat

Codes:

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Explanation: D. Atlas cycle company limited is situated in Sonepat, Bharat Earth Movers Ltd is located in Bengaluru, Indian Farmers Fertilisers Cooperative Ltd. Is located in Kalol, National Aluminium Company Ltd. Is located in Bhubaneswar.

60. Which one of the following statements is true according to 1991 Census data?

U.P. has the highest density of population in India

Himachal Pradesh has the highest female to male sex ratio in India

West Bengal has the highest growth rate of population in India

Bihar has the lowest literacy rate in India Directions.

Explanation: D. According to the census of 1991, Bihar has the lowest literacy rate i.e 37.49%.

61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Explanation: B. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies is located in Varanasi; Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research is located in Mumbai, National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences is located in Bangalore; Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages is located in Hyderabad.

62. Match (Power generation plant) with (Feed material) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh 1. Rice husk
B. M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh 2. Slaughterhouse waste
C. M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab 3. Distillery spent wash
D. M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra Pradesh 4. Black liquor

Codes:

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Explanation: C. M/s Gowthami Solvents Oil Limited, Andhra Pradesh uses Rice husk as feed material; M/s KM. Sugar Mills, Uttar Pradesh- Distillery spent wash; M/s Satia Paper Mills, Punjab- Black liquor as feed material; M/s Al Kabeer Exports Limited, Andhra Pradesh

63. In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is: (C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total exports and total imports respectively.)

Y = C + I + G + X

Y = C + I + G X + M

Y = C + I + G + (X M)

Y = C + I G + X M

Explanation: C. In an open economy national income would be: Y=C+I+G(X-M): where, Y+ National Income; C= Consumption expenditure; I= Investment expenditure; G=Government expenditure; X= Export; M= Import.

64. Which one of the following countries occupies the first place in the "Global Competitive Report" of World Economic Forum?

USA

Singapore

Hong Kong

France

Explanation: B. According to Global Competitive Report published by world Economic Forum in 1999, Singapore occupies the first place.

65. A rise in 'SENSEX' means

a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

a rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange

an overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

a rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to a group of companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange

Explanation: C. A rise in SENSEX means an overall rise in prices of shares of group of companies registered with Bobay stock Exchange.

66. The new Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in February 1999 is with reference to base price of

1991-92

1992-93

1993-94

1994-95

Explanation: C. The new GDP series released by the CSO in Febraury, 1999 is with reference to base of 1993-94.

67. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Codes:

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Explanation: A.

68. That the per capita income in India was Rs. 20 in 1867-68, was ascertained for the first time by

M. G. Ranade

Sir W. Hunter

R. C. Dutta

Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation: D. In 1867-68, for the first time Dadabhai Naoroji had ascertained the Per Capita Income in his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.

69. Indian Human Development Report does not give for each sample village

Infrastructure and Amenities Index

Education Related Index

Health Related Index

Unemployment Related Index

Explanation: D. The National Human Development Report 2001, is an attempt to map the state of human development, and the related economic, educational and health attainments, the report analyses governance for human development. To facilitate monitoring, many process indicators have been created. The Human Development Index, Disparity Index and Human Poverty Index have been calculated for India after modifying the UNDP methodology.

70. Which one of the following statements is false?

All countries other than India have over 80% literacy

Malaysia and Korea have life expectancy higher than all other countries

Higher the adult literacy lower is the infant mortality

The life expectancy at birth in India is almost the same as that of Indonesia

Explanation: C. According to given data, infant mortality rate is both high and low.

71. The best performance in terms of Human Development among the Asian countries is by

China

Malaysia

Korea

Philippines

Explanation: C. Human Development in a country depends on life expectancy of the individual and standard of living of the population. Among Asian countries Korea is the best performer in human development index. Its infant mortality rate is 6 and literacy rate is 98%.

72. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

Codes:

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation: A.

73. ".........instil into the vast millions of workers, men and women, who actually do the job, a sense of partnership and of cooperative performance...."

The above passage relates to

Planned Development

Community Development

Panchayati Raj System

Integrated Development Programme

Explanation: B. The above given passage relates to the community Development Programme. This programme was started in 1952. All over development of rural areas was the prime objective of this programme.

74. Gilt edged market means

bullion market

market of Government securities

market of guns

market of pure metals

Explanation: B. Gilt-edged securities are the government securities traded on the stock exchange. They are called gilt-edged because it is certain that interest will be paid and they will be redeemed on the due date. They are considered as safe investments.

75. The first Indian State to have its Human Development Report prepared and released by Amartya Kumar Sen in Delhi is

West Bengal

Kerala

Madhya Pradesh

Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: C. The Madhya Pradesh Human Development Report was the first sub-national human development in the world. It was released in 1995. Prof. Amartya Sen released the MPHDR second edition in 1999.

76. Economic liberalisation in India started with

substantial changes in industrial licensing policy

the convertibility of Indian rupee

doing away with procedural formalities for foreign direct investment

significant reduction in tax rates

Explanation: A. Economic liberalization in India started with the industrial de-licensing, foreign investment, public sector related policy and policy related to the foreign technology. However option (A) is the closest answer of the above question.

77. The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which came into operation from Dec. 1, 1997 aims to provide gainful employment to the urban unemployed or underemployed poor but does not include

Nehru Rozgar Yojana

Urban Basic Services Programme

Prime Minister's Integrated Urban Poverty Eradication Programme

Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana

Explanation: D. The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana which became operational on 1st December, 1997 provides gainful employment to the urban enemployed and underemployed poor through encouraging the setting up of self-employment ventures or provisions of wage employment. It includes Nehru Rozgar Yojana, Urban Basic Service for poor, Prime Minister Integrated Urban poverty Eradication Programme.

78. Consider the following statements: The Indian rupee is fully convertible

in respect of Current Account of Balance of Payment.
in respect of Capital Account of Balance of Payment.
into gold.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

1 alone

3 alone

1 and 2

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: A. The Indian rupee is fully convertible in respect of Current Account of the Balance of Payment. Tarapore Committee has given the recommendation for full convertibility of rupee.

79. Resurgent India Bonds were issued in US Dollar, Pound Sterling and

Japanese Yen

Deutsche Mark

Euro

French Franc

Explanation: B. Resurgent India bonds were issued in US Dollar, Pound Sterling and Deutsche Mark. State Bank of India had issued the Resurgent India Bond for Non-Resident Indian in the foreign Currencies.

80. Consider the following statements: The Ministerial Meeting of the WTO held in December 1999 was unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with

labourrelated issues.
environment related issues.
terrorism related issues.
debtrelated issues.

Which of these statements are correct?

1, 3 and 4

1 and 2

2 and 3

2 and 4

Explanation: B. The Ministerial meeting of WTO held in Seattle in December, 1999 was unsuccessful because it attempted to link trade with the labour and environment related issues.

81. Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called

Keystone species

Allopatric species

Sympatric species

Threatened species

Explanation: A. Within biological communities, some species may be important in determining the ability of large other species to persist in the community. These species are called Keystone species.

82. Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertiliser for rice crop?

Bluegreen algae

Rhizobium sp

Mycorrhizal fungi

Azotobacter sp

Explanation: A. Blue-green algae can serve as a biofertiliser for rice crop.

83. Assertion (A): In human beings, the females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Reason (R): Women have two 'X' chromosomes.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: D. Assertion is false, but R is true. In human being, male plays the major role in determining the sex of the offspring because male has XY-chromosome, while the female has two X-chromosome. XY combination of chromosome produces male child while XX combination produces female child.

84. Assertion (A): "DNA Finger- printing" has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of criminals in rape and assault cases. Reason (R): Trace evidences such as hairs, saliva and dried semen are adequate for DNA analysis.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. DNA fingerprinting has become a powerful tool due to its ability in tracing evidences of crime and to establish the paternity. These evidences can be collected from hairs, semen and saliva because all of these contain DNA.

85. The stones formed in human kidney consist mostly of

calcium oxalate

sodium acetate

magnesium sulphate

calcium

Explanation: A. Kidney stones consists of mucopolysacharides, urates, calium oxalate, calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate. Most kidney stones are calcium stones, usually in the form of calcium oxalate.

86. At which stage in its lifecycle does the silkworm yield the fibre of commerce?

Egg

Larva

Pupa

Imago

Explanation: C. Silk worm yield the fibre at pupa stage, which is commercially used to produce clothes.

87. Match (Diseases) with (Types of disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Haemophilia 1. Deficiency disease
B. Diabetes 2. Genetic disease
C. Diabetes 3. Hormonal disorder
D. Ringworm 4.Fungal infection

Codes:

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation: B.

88. The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as

mm of Hg

milligram per decilitre

parts per million

grams per litre

Explanation: B. Blood glucose level is commonly expressed as milligram per deci-litre. The normal blood glucose level is 90-150 mg/dl. The level of glucose in blood is controlled by insulin.

89. Phytotron is a facility to

grow plants under disease-free conditions

conserve endangered species of plants

grow plants under controlled conditions

induce mutations

Explanation: C. Phytotron is a facility where a number of growth chambers and Greenhouses are organized in such a way that different environmental factors can be simulated for research studies simultaneously. It is a chamber, in which plants can be grown in controlled condition. It is used for studying interactions between plants and the environment.

90. Match (Endocrine glands) with (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

A. Gonads 1. Insulin
B. Pituitary 2. Progesterone
C. Pancreas 3. Growth hormones
D. Adrenal 4. Cortisone

Codes:

A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

A-2, B-3, C-4, D-4

A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

Explanation: C. Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum. It is a harmone-secreting structure that develops in an ovary (gonad) after an ovum has been discharged. Growth harmone is secreted by Pituitary gland. Insulin is secreted by Pancreas. Cortisone is secreted by adrenal gland in response to stress.

91. Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an

virus

bacterium

insect

plant

Explanation: B. It is made by using a bacterium called as Bacillus thuringiensis.

92. Soft drinks such as colas contain significant quantities of

caffeine

nicotine

tannin

rennin

Explanation: A. Caffeine is found in non-alcoholic beverages, eg: Cocoa, tea etc.

93. Hybridoma technology is a new biotechnological approach for commercial production of

monoclonal antibodies

interferon

antibodies

alcohol

Explanation: A. Hybridoma technology is a method for producing monoclonal antibodies. These antibodies are antibodies that are made by identical immune cells.

94. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after prolonged strenuous physical work is caused by

a decrease in the supply of oxygen

minor wear and tear of muscle fibres

the depletion of glucose

the accumulation of lactic acid

Explanation: D. During strenuous exercise, the requirement of oxygen far exceeds its availability through breathing. Thus, other sources including oxygen from oxymyoglobin, dephosphorylation of creative phosphate, etc are used. After their exhaustion, the muscles begin to respire anaerobically along with aerobic respiration. This leads to anaerobic contraction which produces lactic acid. At the time of rest these lactic acid degrade into pyruvic acid and form CO2 and H2O.

95. small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form because silica gel

kills bacteria

kills germs and spores

absorbs moisture

absorbs all gases present inside the bottle

Explanation: C. Silica gel is found in medicinal bottle to absorbs moisture and saves the medicines. Silica gel is a network of inter-connecting microscopic pores, which attract and hold moisture by the phenomenon known as absorption.

96. Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard varieties bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the

seeds have very high oil content

oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids

oil has long shelflife

oil has very low Erucic acid content

Explanation: B. Canola refers to special type of oil seed. The canola oil contains unsaturated fatty acids that is good for heart patients. This have the essential fatty acid like oleic and linoleic acid.

97. Consider the following features of newer models of motor cars:

Radial tyres
Streamlined body
Multipoint fuel injection
Catalytic converter with exhaust

Which of these features make the newer models of motor cars more fuel efficient?

1 and 2

2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

Explanation: A. A streamlined design is one in which objects that move through a gas or liquid are shaped to match these lines, and therefore, reduce the energy required to produce that motion. Multi point fuel injection system injects fuel into individual cylinders, based on commands from the on board engine management system computer-popularly known as the engine control unit/ECU. These techniques result not only in better power balance amongst the cylinders but also in higher output from each one of them, along with faster throttle response. The other two options radial tyres and catalytic converter with exhaust do not contribute to make the car more fuel efficient.

98. Assertion (A): A man standing on a completely frictionless surface can propel himself by whistling. Reason (R): If no external force acts on a system, its momentum cannot change.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. First statement can be explained on the laws of motion. First statement involves the use of Newton

99. A noise level of 100 decibels would correspond to

just audible sound

ordinary conversation

sound from a noisy street

noise from a machine shop

Explanation: D. The decibel is widely known as a measure of sound pressure level, but is also used for a wide variety of other measurements in science and engineering. The decibel is commonly used in acoustics to quantify sound levels relative to a 0 dB reference which has been defined as a sound pressure level of 0.0002 microbar. The noise level of decibel would corresponds to noise from machine shop.

100. Assertion (A): Small glass beads fixed on traffic signals glow brightly when light falls upon them. Reason (R): Light is totally reflected when the angle of incidence exceeds a certain critical value and light travelling in a denser medium is reflected from a rarer medium.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Both the statements are correct and statement 2 is also correct explanation for statement 1. Total internal reflection is an optical phenomenon that happens when a ray of light strikes a medium boundary at an angle larger than a particular critical angle with respect to the normal to the surface. If the refractive index is lower on the other side of the boundary, no light can pass through and all of the light Is reflected. Thus because of this phenomena traffic light beads glow when light falls on them.