upsc general study 10years pape

GS Paper 1

By Year
By Subject

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 1999

1. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?

Second Schedule

Fifth Schedule

Eighth Schedule

Tenth Schedule

Explanation: D. Tenth Schedule contains provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection. It was introduced by 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for the disqualification of a member of a legislature if he defects from his party to some other party. The decision is taken by the presiding officer in this regard subject to the judicial review. Expectations to this provision include in case of merger when two-thirds of the members have agreed to such a merger. It also excludes a member who voluntarily gives up the membership of his part after being elected as presiding officer or rejoins it after he has left the office.

2. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has

both a real and a nominal executive

a system of collective responsibility

bicameral legislature

the system of judicial review

Explanation: D. Independence of Judiciary and Judicial review have been taken from the US Constitution. In the context of U.K, the parliament is supreme. The features of Indian Constitution contained in option A, B, C have been taken from British Constitution.

3. Assertion (A): The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence. Reason (R): Hinayana form was influenced by that art.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: C. Gandhara School of Art was highly influenced by Greeks. But, it was Mahayana form of Buddhism that was influenced by that art.

4. What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India?

Gold coins
Punch marked silver coins
Iron plough
Urban culture

Codes:

3, 4, 1, 2

3, 4, 2, 1

4, 3, 1, 2

4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: B. Iron plough led to increased agricultural production which helps in flourished trade and growth of urban culture. Then the punch-marked silver coins have appeared which were succeeded by Gold coins minted by Indo-Greek rulers.

5. The Asokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom include rock edicts

I and X

I and XI

II and XIII

II and XIV

Explanation: C. Ashokan major rock edicts II and XII tells us about the Sangam Kingdom. I and II edicts gave account of Ashoka's concern for the comforts of men and beasts. X and XI rock edicts talk about Dharma. XIV rock edict is a post script to 13 rock edicts.

6. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because

Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time

they had renounced the policy of war and violence

casteridden Hinduism did not attract them

Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

Explanation: D. Greeks, Kushanas and shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because Buddhism provided easier access to Indian Society.

7. The given map relates to:

Kaniska at the time of his death

Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign

Asoka towards close of his reign

Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha's accession

Explanation: C. The given map relates to the Asoka's empire towards close of his reign. The map shows the climax of Mauryan empire which extended from North western India uptill southern India, sfter which it was disintegrated because of weak successors.

8. The concept of Eightfold path forms the theme of

Dipavamsa

Divyavadana

Mahaparinibban Sutta

Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta

Explanation: D. The concept of eight fold path forms the theme of Dharma parivartana sutta which means sermon of the turning of the wheel of law. Eight fold path includes right understanding, right speech, right livelihood, right mindfulness, right though, right action, right effort and right concentration. Divyadana or divine narratives is a Sanskrit onthology of Buddhist tales.

9. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve foodgrains to be utilised during the crises in the country?

Sohagaura Copperplate

Rummindei pillaredict of Asoka

PrayagaPrasasti

Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra

Explanation: A. The earliest royal order to preserve food-grains to be utilized during the crisis in the country is Sohagaura copper-plate inscription of Ashoka.

10. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Lothal : Ancient dockyard
Sarnath : First Sermon of Buddha
Rajgir : Lion capital of Asoka
Nalanda : Great seat of Buddhist learning

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

1 and 2

Explanation: C. Lion capital of Ashoka is in Sarnath, not Rajgir. Lothal of Gujarat has a significant place in Harappan civilization due is its proximity or sea and inter-trade relations. Sarnath is a Buddhist sermon site where Buddha first deliver his doctrine. Rajgir is famous pilgrimage centre and is famous for its hot water springs. Nalanda was one of the renowned university of ancient and early medieval times. It was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Khilji in 1193

11. The member of Shivaji's Astha Pradhana who looked after foreign affairs was:

Peshwa

Sachiv

Pandit Rao

Sumant

Explanation: D. Sumant looked after foreign affairs. Pandit Rao looked for religious matters. Sachiv was the minister in charge of royal correspondence. Peshwa is for general administration of the empire.

12. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from the view point of

natural resources

buffer territory

communication

strategic stronghold

Explanation: D. Shah Jahan qandhar Qandhar in 1638 from the Iranians but lost it again in 1649 despite three campaigns. The loss of qandhahar was a big blow as it was a strategic stronghold.

13. Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant

extra payment made to the nobles

revenue assigned in lieu of salary

excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars

illegal exactions extracted from the peasants

Explanation: C. Fawazil was balance between the income and expenditure of Iqta-holders.

14. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was

Iltutmish

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Feroz Shah Tughlaq

Sikandar Lodi

Explanation: C. Feroz shah Tughlaq was reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India during Sultanate period. Some of the canals he built were: Sirsa to Hansi, Sutluj to Yamuna and Dipalpur to Sirmaur. Iltutmish is famous for establishing Chalisa. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq founded Tughlaqbad. Sikander Lodhi founded Agra.

15. Assertion (A): At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military. Reason (R): The country was parcelled out as 'Iqtas' among leading military leaders.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Iqta is that part of land granted by the Sultan to its military chiefs for maintenance of troopers. The land was taken back when the Iqtadars were not in a position to maintain the army.

16. Assertion (A): During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkha, Badakh-shan and Qandahar. Reason (R): The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the MiddleEast was a marvellous success.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: C. R is incorrect as this expedition failed miserably. Shah- Jahan Balkh Baddakhshan campaign was a failure. The Mughal taking advantage of the political turmoil and divisions in central Asia decided to attack central Asia. In 1645 a Mughal army under Asalat khan was sent North to occupy Badakhshan. But the campaign was not successful. The main reason for that was huge difference in resources between the two empires as well as difficult terrain.

17. Consider the following statements : Ahadis were those troopers who

offered their services singly.
did not attach themselves to any chief.
had the emperor as their immediate colonel
attached themselves to Mirzas

Of these statements :

1, 3 and 4 are correct

1, 2 and 3 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

1 and 4 are correct

Explanation: A. Ahadis were the serf troopers, who were recruited individually and were under the command of separate mansabdar or officer and had a diwan and a bakshi of their own capacity.

18. Consider the following:

Tughlaquabad Fort.
Lodi Garden.
Qutub Minar
Fatehpur Sikri

The correct chronological order in which they were built is:

3, 1, 4, 2

3, 1, 2, 4

1, 3, 2, 4

1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation: B. Qutub Minar (1193-1320 A.D.); Tughlaqbad Fort (1414-1451 A,D.); Lodi Garden (1451-1526 A.D.); Fatehpur Sikri (1569 A.D.).

19. Match and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. The Battle of Haldighati was fought between the Mughal Empire and the forces of Mewar on June 21, 1576 at Haldighati in Rajasthan, India. It was a decisive victory for the Mughal Emperor Jalal- ud-din Muhammad Akbar's general Raja Man Singh against the Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar. Akbar was 14 years old when he was crowned at Kalanaur in 1556.

20. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar's empire at a certain juncture: 'A' stands for an independent country and 'B' marks the site of a city. Which one of the following alternatives gives all correct information?

Akbar in 1557 : (A) Golkunda (B) Lahore

Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh (B) Multan

Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Multan

Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Lahore

Explanation: D. The shaded part represents Akbar's territory at the time of his death in 1605. A stands for Gondwana an independent country while B marks the city of Lahore.

21. The educated middle class in India

opposed the revolt of 1857

supported the revolt of 1857

remained neutral to the revolt of 1857

fought against native rulers

Explanation: C. The revolt did not spread to all parts of the country. Nor was it supported by all groups and sections of the Indian society. South and West India remained largely outside the fold of the revolt. Many Indian rulers refused to help the rebels and some were openly hostile to the rebels and helped the british in suppressing the revolt. The middle and upper classes and the modern educated Indians also did not support the revolt.

22. What is the correct sequence of the following events?

Tilak's Home Rule League
Kamagatamaru Incident
Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2 and 3

3, 2 and 1

2, 1 and 3

2, 3 and 1

Explanation: D. Tilak's Home Rule League

23. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because:

there was no Indian Member in the Commission

it supported the Muslim League

Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj

there were differences among the members

Explanation: A. There was no Indian Member in the Commission. All the 7 members of Simon Commission were Whites.

24. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of the

influence of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan

anti Muslim attitude of extremist leaders

indifference shown to Muslim aspirations

Extremists' policy of harping on Hindu past

Explanation: D. In general, the Indian Muslims were not attracted to the extremist movement because of the religious policy of harping on Hindu past like celebrating Shivaji Jayanti and Ganesh Utsav by Tilak and holy dip in sacred rivers during Swadeshi movement.

25. Which one of the following events, was characterised by Montague as 'Preventive Murder'?

Killing of INA activists

Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh

Shooting of the Mahatma

Shooting of Curzon-Wythe

Explanation: C. The Massacre of Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar was severely criticized by Edwin Motague, and called it as 'Preventive Murder'.

26. What is the correct sequence of the following events?

The August Offer
The I.N.A. trial
The Quit India Movement
The Royal Indian Naval Ratings' Revolt

Codes:

1,3,2,4

3,1,2,4

1,3,4,2

3,1,4,2

Explanation: A. August Offer- 1940; INA Trial- 1945; Quit India Movement- 1942; Royal Navy Ratings Revolt- 1946.

27. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?

Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them preference over imported commodities

Obtaining selfgovernment by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways

Providing national education according to the requirements of the country

Organising coups against the British empire through military revolt

Explanation: B. The extremist groups of the early phase of Indian freedom movement had believed in obtaining self government by aggressive means in place of place of petitions and constitutional ways.

28. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Theodore Beck : Mohammadan AngloOriental College, Aligarh
Ilbert Bill : Ripon
Pherozesha : Indian National Mehta Congress
Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4

2 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: D. Badruddin Tyabji was not associated with the Muslim League but he was the first Muslim president of INC in 1887 at Madras.

29. "The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise." This statement is attributed to

Lord Dufferin

Lord Curzon

Lord Lytton

None of the above

Explanation: B. Lord Curzon (1899-1905).

30. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?

Bhagat Singh

Lala Hardayal

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

V. D. Savarkar

Explanation: B. The founding name of Ghaddar party was Pacific Coast Hindustan Association. The founding president of Ghadar party was sohan singh Bhakana and Lala Hardayal was the co-founder of this party. Headquarters was setup at Yugantar Ashram in San Francisco.

31. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific instructions to

balkanize the Indian subcontinent

keep India united if possible

accept Jinnah's demand for Pakistan

persuade the Congress to accept partition

Explanation: B. He came to India with a specific instruction to keep India united if possible, and overseeing the transition of British India to independence no later than 30th June, 1948. But, he was not unable to keep India united so he used the plan Balkan.

32. Assertion (A): The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of the National Movement. Reason (R): There was a predominant element of anti-imperialism in both the National and Khilafat Movements.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. The significant anti-imperial movement were the reasons because of urban Muslims came into the fold of National movement.

33. Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates' role in the Indian freedom movement. Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the Extremists from the Moderates.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: D. A is false as role of moderates continued after partition of Bengal. Extremists and moderates separated at surat session in 1907 but reunited at 1916 session at Lucknow.

34. Assertion (A): The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India was rejected in 1911. Reason (R): Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. British government rejected the first bill to make primary education compulsory in India, as it had feared that it moght spread the discontent among the people.

35. Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals. Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. A is right as congress rejected the cripps proposals as it recommended dominion status instead of complete independence after the world war II. R is also right, but doesnot explain A.

36. Assertion (A): Gandhi stopped the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922. Reason (R): Violence at Chauri Chaura led him to stop the movement.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. Gandhi started the Non-Cooperation movement in 1920. It progressed powerfully from 1920

37. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of

Foreign affairs

Home

Finance

Defence

Explanation: C. The interim government was formed on September 2, 1946. With Muslim League joining the interim government, the second highest ranking league politician Liaquat Ali khan became the head of the Department of Finance. Abdur Rab Nishtar headed the Department of posts and Air and Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar headed the Department of Commerce. The league nominated a Schedule Caste Hindu Politician Jogendra Nath Mandal to lead the Department of Law.

38. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country mainly because

the principle of twoNation theory was then acceptable to them

it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was helpless in this regard

they wanted to avoid large scale communal riots

India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom

Explanation: C. The period of 1940s were the considered crisis time for Hindu Muslim unity thereafter Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country because they wanted to avoid large scale communal riots which took live of thousands people. The rise of communal riots and the state of confusion and communal disharmony was spreading very fast and to check this congress leaders were forced to agree over partition.

39. At the time of India's Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was

member of Congress Working Committee

not a member of the Congress

the President of the Congress

the General Secretary of the Congress

Explanation: B. The president of the Indian National Congress during 1947 was J.B.Kripalani. Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of Congress though he was a mentor for national policy formation.

40. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Mrichchakatikam
Buddhacharita
Mudrarakshasha
Harshacharita

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 4

Explanation: B. BuddhaCharita was written by Ashvaghosh. He is believed to be the first Sanskrit dramatist and is considered the greatest Indian poet prior to Kalidasa.

41. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids:

Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun
Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km.
The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

Of these statements:

1, 2 and 3 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

1 and 2 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

Explanation: C. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes from smaller to as large as 1000km. But the orbit of asteroids (tier orbit) lies between diameter of the Mars and Jupiter, but not between Jupiter and saturn. So, 1 and 2 are correct but not 3.

42. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere

Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Explanation: C. The correct sequence is Tropo-Strato-Meso-Ionospheres. Tropospheres extends upto 8-18km, after that, stratosphere upto 50 km, after that Mesosphere extends upto 80km and beyond that, upto 400 km Ionosphere exists.

43. Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their names given in the list and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

Codes:

A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

A-5; B-3; C-1; D-2

A-5; B-4; C-1; D-3

A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

Explanation: B. A is Yukon river in Alaska region. B is Mackenzie river in Northern Canada. C is St. Lawrence river in Eastern Canada. D is Orinoco river in Venezuela.

44. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called

red tides

sea tides

black tides

sea flowers

Explanation: A. The growth of pigmented dinoflagellates causes red colour to water. So these blooms are called Red tides. Algal bloom may also deplete oxygen in the waters and may release toxins that may be harmful to humans and other marine animals.

45. Consider the following climatic conditions (northern hemisphere):

These are most likely to be found in the natural regions of

China type

Equatorial type

Hot desert type

Monsoon type

Explanation: A. This is most likely to be found in the natural region of China type; which is typified by a warm moist summer and a cool, dry winter. Temperatures are strongly modified by maritime influence.

46. When there is noon at G. M .T. meridian people on another place of the Earth are taking their 6 o'clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is

172

Explanation: B. Since the earth makes one complete rotation of 360

47. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: D. The smallest planet of the Solar system is Pluto. Largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter. Venus is the planet second from the sun in the solar system. Mercury is Planet nearest to the sun.

48. The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica?

Canada

France

Russia

USA

Explanation: A. The satellites launched by Canada has helped in the preparation of a complete and high resolution map Antarctica.

49. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the major importer of bauxite from India?

Canada

Greece

Ukraine

United Arab Emirates

Explanation: A. Canada is largest importer of bauxite from India.

50. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by

greenhouse effect

depletion of ozone layer

El Nino effect

None of the above

Explanation: D. The Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by Slash and burn technique of Agriculture.

51. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of

Chlorine

Ozone

Nitrogen

Oxygen

Explanation: D. The water pollution in rivers is measured by the dissolved amount of Oxygen. Polluted water has high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), i.e., less amount of oxygen is dissolving in it.

52. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km2 of their area?

Haryana
Maharashtra
Punjab
Tamil Nadu

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

4, 2, 3, 1

4, 3, 1, 2

3, 4, 1, 2

3, 4, 2,1

Explanation: D. Punjab-Tamil Nadu- Maharashtra-Haryana.

53. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the rough outline map of Gujarat are respectively

Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara

Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh

Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla

Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach

Explanation: B. The Railway junctions marked as 1, 2, 3, 4 are Mahasena, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh.

54. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in descending order in terms of their available ground water resources for irrigation?

3, 4, 1, 2

3, 4, 2, 1

4, 3, 1, 2

4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation: D. Interma of available ground water resources for irrigation, the decreasing order is: Uttara Pradesh > Maharashtra > West Bengal > Assam.

55. Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given, the correct sequence of descending order of per cent of scheduled tribe population to their total population is:

1, 3, 2, 4

3, 1, 2, 4

3, 1, 4, 2

1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation: B. The descending order of given states, accprding to their percent of ST population to their total population is- Mizoram (94.75%) > Arunachal Pradesh (63.66%) > Manipur (34.41%) > Orissa (22.2%).

56. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan Railway?

Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala

Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala

Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra

Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu

Explanation: A. The states of Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Kerala would benefit most from the konkan railway, as it passes through these states.

57. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group?

Marathi

Ladakhi

Khasi

Tamil

Explanation: C. Khasi and Nicobarese languages belongs to Monkhmer branch of Austric languages. Ladakhi belongs to Sino-Tibetan family. Marathi belongs to Indo Aryan family. Tamil belongs to Dravidian language family.

58. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift valley due to down warping?

Damodar

Mahanadi

Sone

Yamuna

Explanation: B. Mahanadi, the east flowing river of India has rift valley due to down warping.

59. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given:

Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious epidemic include

teak forests of 3 and 4

oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2

sal forests of 3

sandalwood forests of 4

Explanation: C. The place marked 3 indicates sal trees of Madhya Pradesh. They were affected in 1997 by the insects.

60. Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough map given below:

Explanation: C. It is the Kaveri basin in Tamil Nadu. Note: Barmer in Rajasthan has been discovered to have new off shore commercial production in India.

61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Graphite 1. Bellary
B. Lead 2. Didwana
C. Salt 3. Rampa
D. Silver 4. Zawar

Codes:

A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3

A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2

A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

Explanation: B. Lead ore found in Zawar in Udaipur district in Rajasthan. Silver ore found in Bellary in Karnataka, baramulla in Jammu and Kashmir, Almora in Uttara Pradesh, Cuddapah, Guntur Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh. Graphite found in Rampa Chodavaram, Eastern Godavari District in Andhra Pradesh. Salt lakes of Sambhar in Jaipur, Phalodi and Pachabhadra in Jodhpur of Rajasthan.

62. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the history of Indian Sericulture. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Oak tasar silk?

Assam

Bihar

Manipur

Orissa

Explanation: C. Mainly four varieties of silk are produced in India, i.e., Mulbery, Eri, Tasar and Muga. 80% of the silk produced in the Country is of mulberry silk mainly produced in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Muga is having a golden sheen and is found in Assam and North-Eastern states. Eri is also grown in Assam and North Eastern states. Tropical tasar is found in central India in Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Bihar, M.p, U.P etc.

63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Jamnagar is important centre of woolen industry. Korba is important for Aluminium industry. Hospet in Bellary district is important for Iron and steel (The Vijaynagar steel plant). Haldia is for Fertilisers.

64. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Alibag 1. Fishing Centre

Balapur 2. Holiday resort

Nhava Sheva 3. Petrochemical complex

Ratnagiri 4. Port

Explanation: D. Alibag

65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh
Gram 2. Gujarat
Black pepper 3. West Bengal
Pineapple 4. Kerala

Codes:

A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3

A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4

A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3

A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4

Explanation: A. Gram

66. The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of names:

Codes:

A-3; B-4;C-2;D-1

A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3

A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

Explanation: B. Katni in Madhya Pradesh, Tirunelveli in Kerala, Sikka in Gujarat and Churk in Uttara Pradesh are the important centres of Cement Industry.

67. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline map of India is a riverine port?

Explanation: D. Hooghly in West Bengal is a major riverine port.

68. Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their respective location labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map:

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A-4; B-3; C-2; D-6

A-4; B-5; C-1; D-6

A-2; B-3; C-4; D-5

Explanation: A. Central Drug Research Institute is at Lucknow. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation is at Kolkata. National Institute of Ocean Technology is at Chennai. Temperate Forest Research Centre is at Shimla.

69. Central Drug Research Institute is at Lucknow. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation is at Kolkata. National Institute of Ocean Technology is at Chennai. Temperate Forest Research Centre is at Shimla.

Tipis

Barkhans

Phoomdis

Izba

Explanation: C. Phoomdis are a series of floating islands, exclusive to the Loktak lake in Manipur. They cover a substantial part of the lake area and are heterogenous masses of vegetation, soil and organic matter in different stages of decay.

70. Some time back, the Government of India, decided to delicense 'white goods' industry. 'White goods' include

stainless steel and aluminium utensils

milk and milk products

items purchased for conspicuous consumption

soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

Explanation: C. White goods include items purchased for conspicuous specific consumption like T.V, A.c, Fridge, cooler, etc.

71. The misery index is the sum of a country's unemployment and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the country to live in. The figure given below is the Misery Index for various countries in Europe: Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery index given above?

Britain is the most miserable country to live in.
The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain.
Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment rate.
The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes:

1 alone

2 and 3

1, 2, 3 and 4

None

Explanation: D. As per the question, Spain is the most miserable country. But no other definite conclusions can be made from the given options A, B, C.

72. Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)?

Africa

America

Asia and Oceania

Europe

Explanation: D. Europe is the region that supplies the maximum of our imported commodities (in terma of rupee value).

73. Consider the following statements: The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

World Bank.
demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
stability of the government of the concerned country.
economic potential of the country in question Of these statements

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

2 and 3 are correct

3 and 4 are correct

1 and 4 are correct

Explanation: B. The price of any currency in international market is determined by the demand for goods/services provided by the country and the stability of the government of the concerned country. World bank is a vital source of financial and technical assistance to developing countries around the world. It has no relation with price of currency in international market. Price of any currency is determined like price of any other commodity i.e. by forces of demand and supply. Demand for a currency is created by two factors, Its exports (other countries who want to buy) or the investments (people want to make in that currency). Stability is also an important factor as unstable government may hamper trade and investment.

74. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if

he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income

he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income

he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items

he is able to locate new sources of income

Explanation: A. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income. It is the state of balance achieved by an end user of products. It refers to the amount of goods and services they can purchase given their present level of income and the current level of prices. Consumer equilibrium allows a consumer to obtain the most satisfaction possible from their income. Hence the answer is (A).

75. The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of

producer

global economy

consumer

middleman

Explanation: A. Supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of the producer whereas the demand side economics lays emphasis on the interest of the consumer.

76. Assertion (A): The United States of America has threatened to ask the World Trade Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the developing countries for the non-observance of ILO conventions. Reason (R): The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented those ILO conventions.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: B. Both Assertion and Reason are individually correct, but Reason doesn't explain the Assertion. USA wants developing countries to follow ILO conventions in order to fulfil its own economics self-interest. USA thinks that developing countries with low labour standards can get unfair advantage over it in international market making the products of developing countries more competitive vis-

77. According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource depletion continue unchanged, the "Limits to Growth" on our planet will be reached in the next

50 years

100 years

150 years

200 years

Explanation: B. According to Meadows (1992), the Limits to Growth on our planet will be reached in the next 100 years. The Limits to Growth is a 1972 book about the computer simulation that talks of exponential economic and population growth with finite resources supplies.

78. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human Development Report of the year

1994

1995

1996

1997

Explanation: D. 1997.

79. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Dow Jones : New York
Hang Seng : Seoul
FTSE 100 : London

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3

1 and 2

1 and 3

Explanation: D. Dow Jones, Hang SAeng and FTSE-100 are the stock exchanges of New York, Hong Kong and London respectively.

80. The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that

all items cost 3.3 times more than what they did in 1960

the prices of certain selected items have gone upto 3.3 times

weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times

gold price has gone up 3.3 times

Explanation: C. The Current Price Index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times.

81. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called

SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)

SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)

CBR (Central Bank Reserve)

CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)

Explanation: B. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the ratio (fixed by the RBI) that Bank has to maintain between their cash in hand and total assets. It may be kept in the form of cash, gold and government securities. SLR is fixed by the RBI through its monetary policy.

82. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is

April-March

July-June

October-September

January-December

Explanation: B. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is July-June.

83. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in Indian Rupees?

US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong dollar

US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong dollar

US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar

US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar

Explanation: A. The decreasing order of the given currencies in tems of their value in Indian Rupees is US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar and Hong Kong dollar.

84. Eco mark' is given to the Indian products that are

pure and unadulterated

rich in proteins

environment friendly

economically viable

Explanation: C. Eco mark is given to the Indian products that are environment friendly. The certification mark is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). This marking scheme started in 1991 to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing adverse impact on the environment.

85. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel

that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services

that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets

None of the above

Explanation: C. The capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies that the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets. India presently does not have full capital account convertibility. If the Indian rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and service, it is called current account convertibility on Indian rupee.

86. The economist who was associated with the WTO draft document is

A.K. Sen

T.N. Srinivasan

J.N. Bhagwati

Avinash Dixit

Explanation: A. AK Sen was associated with the WTO draft document. He is an Indian economist who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1998 Economic Science for his contribution to welfare economies and social choice theory and for his interest in the problems of society

87. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the

Reserve Bank of India

Planning Commission of India

Ministry of Finance, Government of India

Ministry of Industries, Government of India

Explanation: C. Economic Survey in India is presented every year in the parliament by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.

88. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Fruit 1. Ovule
B. Seed 2. Leaf
C. Wood 3. Stem
D. Starch 4. Ovary

Codes:

A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4

A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2

A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

Explanation: C. After the pollination of Ovary, fruit develops gradually from it. Stem of Tree develops to wood. Seed develops from fertilized ovule. Leaf produces Starch at the time of Photosynthesis.

89. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct?

Both of them are of plant origin

Both of them are polymers

Both of them give colour with iodine

Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

Explanation: C. Starch and cellulose both are plant origin. Starch deposits in plant cells, whereas cellulose is most important constituent of plant cell wall. Both starch and cellulose are polymers. Starch is branched polymer of alpha-D-glucose unit linked by alpha-1,4 glycosidic bond. Cellulose is a polymer of beta-D-glucose unit. Glucose molecules are present in both starch and cellulose. Amylose in starch is responsible for the formation of deep blue colour in the presence of iodine but cellulose does not give any colour at the treatment with iodine, because amylase is absent in cellulose.

90. Ergotism is due to consumption of

contaminated grains

rotting vegetables

contaminated water

stale cooked food

Explanation: A. Ergotism is the effect of long term ergot poisoning, due to ingestion of alkaloids produced by fungus Claviceps purpurea which is found in infected cereals and ryes.

91. Examine the following three statements:

Processed meat is a perishable food.
All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins.
Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

Sealed tins always contain perishable food

Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins

Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins

Non-perishable foods are never packed in sealed tins

Explanation: C. We can draw the inference that processed meat is always packed in sealed tins.

92. Which one of the following types of microorganisms is most widely used in industries ?

Bacteria

Bacteria and fungi

Bacteria and algae

Bacteria, microalgae and fungi

Explanation: D. Bacteria, micro algae and fungi is most widely used in industries. Bacteria like Lactobacillus sp. Is used in manufacturing of vinegar and alcohol by fermentation process.

93. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Theory of Mutation 1. Beadle and Tatum
B. Theory of Evolution 2. Jacob and Monod
C. One gene one enzyme hypothesis 3. Darwin
D. Operon concept 4. De Vries

Codes:

A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

Explanation: B. Theory of Mutation is postulated by de vries. Theory of evolution is by Charl's Darwin. Operon concept is given by Jacob and Monad. One gene and one enzyme hypothesis proposed by Beadle and Tautum.

94. Tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird?

Dove

Dodo

Condor

Skua

Explanation: B. Dodo bird species existed only on the island of Mauritius. Due to its short wings and bulky body the Dodo birds could not fly or flee in the face of danger. So human used to kill them for food. Later the species became extinct from Mauritius. This bird species was helpful in pollinating and propagating seed of trees.

95. The complete conversion of glucose In the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called

aerobic respiration

anaerobic respiration

glycolysis

hydrolysis

Explanation: A. The complete conversion of glucose in presence of oxygen, into carbon dioxide, water and release energy is called aerobic respiration. Anaerobic respiration, occurs in the absence of oxygen.

96. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains

polyunsaturated fatty acids

saturated fatty acids

essential vitamins

more carbohydrates and proteins

Explanation: A. Polyunsaturated fatty acid is an anti oxidant, which helps in building of tissues.

97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

A. Malaria 1.Fungi
B. Poliomyelitis 2. Bacteria
C. Tuberculosis 3. Virus
D. Ringworm 4. Protozoan

Codes:

A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2

A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1

Explanation: A. Malaria parasite is an protozoan. Tuberculosis is a bacteria. Ring worm is a fungus and poliomyelitis is a virus.

98. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to

decrease in haemoglobin level

rheumatic heart disease

decrease in WBC

non clotting of blood

Explanation: D. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder. Clotting of blood is abnormally delayed that even a simple or small cut will result non stop b leeding in affected individual.

99. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?

It is connected in parallel with the main switch

It is made mainly from silver alloys

It must have a low melting point

It must have a very high resistance

Explanation: C. As fuse is a safety device used in domestic slectric circuit to prevent the house from short circuit. The fuse wire is made up of the metal having low melting point.

100. Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it. Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

A is true, but R is false

A is false, but R is true

Explanation: A. When electric current passes through the metal wire, the wire becomes hot and produces heat. It is due to heating effect of current, which is obtained by transformation of electrical energy into heat energy when the current passes through the wire, the collision of the free electrons with ions or metal atoms collide with each other which releases energy.