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UPSC Courses

UPSC Previous Year Solved Papers 1997

1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended

Explanation: A. In 1990, Dinesh Goswami Committee recommended the State funding of Parliamentary Elections.

2. Which of the following is NOT a Principle of Panch-sheel?

Explanation: A. The principles of Panchsheel are: 1. Mutual respect for each Others territorial integrity and sovereignty, 2. Non-Aggression, 3. Non-Interference in each other's internal affairs, 4.Peaceful Coexistence, 5. Equality and mutual Benefit.

3. In which of the following countries will the no-confidence motion to bring down the government passed by the legislature be valid only when the legislature is able to find simultaneously a majority to elect a successor government ?

Explanation: B. In Germany, It is called as constructive motion of no-confidence, which is followed in Germany. It contains two motions- the first motion expresses lack of confidence of the house in the council of ministers and the second motion expresses confidence in the leader from opposition.

4. Which one of the following was NOT proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in the area of Panchayati Raj?

Explanation: C. Under Article 243D, at least one-third of the seats have been reserved for women in Panchayats. State Finance Commission shall be constituted to review the financial position of the panchayats under Article 243I.

5. Which one of the following States of India has passed a legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one's parents mandatory?

Explanation: D. Himachal Pradesh passed a legislation (in 1996) making the maintenance of one

6. Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country where

Explanation: B. In proportional representation, a candidate requires 50%+ 1 vote to get elected. In a two party system, one automatically secures it. Hence proportional representation is not necessary in such country.

7. State Funding of elections takes place in

Explanation: D. In Germany, U.K, Denmark, Finland, Italy, Norway, Austria, USA, and Netherlands, state funding of elections is in practice.

8. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in

Explanation: C. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated in the United States. PIL is a legal action initiated in a court of law for the enforcement of public Interest or general interest. In India, the PIL is a product of the judicial Activist role of supreme Court. It was introduced in early 1980s. Justice V.R.Krishna Iyer and P.N. Bhagawati were the pioneers of the concept of PIL in India.

9. If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament

Explanation: A. The Prime Minister of India belonging to Upper House will not be able to vote in his favour in the case of a no-confidence motion because no-confidence is passed in Lok Sabha only as per the Rule198 of the Lok Sabha. The PM can make his statements in either of the house of parliament. The Indian Constitution does not require the PM to be necessarily a member of Lok Sabha. However Article 75 says that Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Lok Sabha.

10. Consider the following statements:
  1. Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislatures does not require Constitutional amendment.
  2. Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty three per cent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Explanation: D. The Reservation of 33% of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature require Constitutional Amendment.

11. In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression "population" here means the population as ascertained by the

Explanation: A. The expression Population means the population as ascertained at the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published. Here it can be interpreted as a reference to the 1991 Census, until 2026.

12. Which one of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?
  1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament
  2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Article 59 of the Constitution states that the President shall not be a member of the either House of the Legislature of any state. Article 79 says, there shall be a parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the council of states and House of people.

13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. President

14. In which one of the following countries are 75 per cent of seats in both Houses of Parliament filled on the basis of first-past the-post system and 25 per cent on the basis of Proportional Representation system of elections ?

Explanation: C. France

15. In the following quotation: "WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship? EQUALITY of status and of opportunity? and to promote among them all? FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation? In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' .......... do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution." 'X' stands for

Explanation: B. On 26th November 1949, the constitution received the signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly and was declared as passed.

16. Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or noncompliance of Court Orders and use of derogatory language about judicial behaviour amounts o Contempt of Court. Reason (R): Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Explanation: B. Both A and B are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Judicial Activism refers to court rulings that are partially or fully based on the Judges political or personal considerations, rather than existing laws.

17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists:

Explanation: A. Gupta's capital was Deogarh, and chandellas had their capital at Khajuraho, Chalukyas capital was Badami and Pallava's capital was panamalai.

18. Which one of the following statements regarding Ashokan stone pillars is incorrect?

Explanation: D. Aasoka's pillars are not actually architectural structures, they were intended to spread Ashoka's messages to the people. They were erected with Ashokan edicts. They were erected in every direction mainly in four scripts. These edicts were deciphered by James Princep in 1837.

19. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was written from right to left?

Explanation: D. Kharosthti script found in now Pakistan region, is written from right to left which is evolved on the Varnamala system of Indian language. It was deciphered by James Prinsep which in turn led to reading of Asokan edicts. The Brahmi script written from left to right.

20. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in the

Explanation: C. The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama (lord of death) about death and transmigration of Soul in mentioned Kathonipashad. Mundakopanishad is known for the quote 'Satyamev Jayate'.

21. Milindapanho is in the form of a dialogue between the King Menander and the Buddhist monk

Explanation: A. The dialogue between the King Meander (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena was compiled in the form of Milindapanho in 1 century B.C.

22. Which one of the following edicts mentions the personal name of Asoka?

Explanation: D. The personal name of Asoka is mentioned in Maski and Gujarat edicts.

23. The following maps shows four of the sixteen mahajanapadas that existed in ancient India:

The places marked A, B, C and D respectively are

Explanation: C. The given order is Matsya-Avanti-Vatsa-Anga. According to 16 Mahajanapadas in Anguttaranikaya. Matsya Mahajanapada comprised the present day Jaipur Bharatpur-Alwar area of Rajastan. Avanti is modern day Ujjain districts of Madhya Pradesh. Anga a Mahajanapada was in Gangetic Valley of Bihar. Vatsa situated in the Gangetic plain, now known as kosam, a small town in Uttar Pradesh.

24. In the Mahayana Buddhism, the Bodhisattva Avalokitesvara was also known as

Explanation: C. In Mahayana Bodhisatva Avalokiteshvara is known as Padmapani. The name Avalokitesvara means "Lord who looks down with Compassion".

25. The silver coins issued by the Guptas were called

Explanation: A. Rupaka was silver coin of Gupta period. Most of these coins are found in Northern parts of the country. 1.6 Rupaka was equal to one Gold coin.

26. Which one of the following was a corporation of merchants in ancient India?

Explanation: D. Manigrama was a corporation of Merchants in Ancient South India. Southern Indian trade guilds were formed in order to organize and expand their trading activities. Ashtadikaja is the collective title given to eight Telugu poets in the court of the emperor Shri Krishna Deva Raya of Vijayanagara empire. Parishad refers to general assembly during the ancient times. Chaturvedamangalam was ancient village located in Chola Kingdom.

27. After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of

Explanation: C. After consolidating his power, Balban assumed the grand title of Zil-i-Illahi (shadow of god). It was influenced by the Persian court model. Tute-i-Hind is referred to Amir Khusrou. Din-i-illahi was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar. Kaisr-i-Hind title was given to Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

28. The head of the military department under the reorganised central machinery of administration during Akbar's reign was

Explanation: B. Mir Bakshi was the head of Military and Intelligence department. Diwan refers to a Ministry or Department, but under Mughal it meant specifically the financial or revenue Ministry. Mir Saman was official in Charge of the household stores, the workshop for producing goods for the places and the arsenals.

29. Assertion (A): The sponsor and the most prominent figure of the Chisti order of Sufis in India is Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti. Reason (R): The Chisti order takes its name from a village Chisti in Ajmer.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Explanation: C. Chisti order was founded in Chist, a small town near Heart, Afghanistan about 930 C.E. It was founded by Abu Ishaq Shami. The most famous of Chisti saints is Moinuddin Chisti popularly Known as 'Gharib Nawaz' meaning benefactor of the poor.

30. The medieval Indian writer who refers to the discovery of America is

Explanation: D. Abul Fazl was the medieval Indian writer of Akbar's court who refers to the discovery of America. He called it as Alumnau. Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote Padmavat. Amir Khusrau a great poet writer and musician wrote Tughlaqnama, Nuh siphir and invented Tabla.

31. The Badami rock inscription of Pulakesin I is dated in the Saka year 465. If the same were to be dated in Vikrama Samvat, the year would be

Explanation: A. 465+78+601. To convert Badami rock inscription as per Vikrama Samvat, the year would be 601 because 78 AD is the starting year of saka era and 58 BC is starting year of Vikrama Samvat.

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: D. Butler Committee was appointed in 1927 to give its report on relationship between the Indian states and paramount power. Hartog Committee was appointed in 1929 to give his report on the growth of education in British India and potentialities of its further progress. Hunter Commission was on Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in 1919 and Muddiman Committee Report on working of Dyarchy as laid down in the Motague Chelmsford Reforms.

33. "A graduate at 18, professor and associated editor of the Sudharak at 20, Secretary of the Sarvajanik Sabha and of the Provincial Conference at 25, Secretary of the National Congress at 29, leading witness before an important Royal Commission at 31, Provincial legislator at 34, Imperial legislator at 36, President of the Indian National Congress at 39......... a patriot whom Mahatma Gandhi himself regarded as his master." This is how a biographer describes

Explanation: C. This statement is about Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He was born in Kolhapur in 1866, graduated from Elphinston college and appointed professor of Fergueson College in Poona. Gandhiji himself regarded as his political master.

34. Who among the following was associated with the suppression of Thugs?

Explanation: B. Lord William Bentick appointed Captain Sleeman for suppression of Thugs. By 1837, thugs were suppressed by his effort.

35. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: D. Minto Morley reforms (1909) introduced separate electorates for Muslims, this is called Communal electorate which ultimately led to the division of India. Simon Commission has no Indian member in it. So, it was rejected by Indians and resulted in Country-wide agitation. Chauri-Chaura incident (1922) resulted in withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement. In Dandi March (1930), by illegal manufacture of Salt, Gandhiji started Civil Disobedience Movement.

36. The Poona Pact which was signed between the British Government and Mahatma Gandhi in 1934 provided for

Explanation: D. When Mahatma Gandhi protested against the communal Award and went on a fast unto death in the Yeravada Jail on 20 september 1934. Then poona pact came into existence in 1934. Accordingly, in place of 71 seats as approved in the Communal Award, 148 seats in different provincial legislatures were reserved for the depressed classes.

37. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

Explanation: B. The famous Surat Split between two fractions of congress, Moderates and Extremists in the Congress occurred in 1907 0f Surat Session. Communal award was made by the British Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald on 16 August, 1932. All parties convention a series of conventions which took place in 1928 bringing together representatives of various political parties and communities in India with a view to working out a mutually agreed formula for constitutional advance. Poorna Swaraj was declared by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji, Jawaharlal Nehru and other leaders.

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: C. Chittagong Armoury Raid took place in Bengal under the leadership of Surya Sen on the Government armouries in 1930. Saharanpur to Lucknow train was looted at Kakori under the leadership of Ram Prasad Bismil in 1925. Jatin Das was the first martyr who died on 64th day of his past, he was tried in Lahore conspiracy case along with Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev in April 1929. Ghadar party was established by Lala Hardayal and Sohan singh Bhakna in 1913 at san Fransisco.

39. M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were distinguished members of the

Explanation: D. Servants of Indian Society was formed by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 in poona, Maharashtra, who left the Deccan Education Society to form this association.

40. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following?
  1. Wood's Education Despatch
  2. Macaulay's Minute on Education
  3. The Sargeant Education Report
  4. Indian Education (Hunter Commission)

Explanation: A. Maccaulay's minute on education (1835), Charles Wood's dispatch (1854), Hunter Commission (1882), Sargents plan on Education (1944).

41. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: A. Moplah revolt occurred in Malabar in 1921 led by Ali Musaliyar and varian kunnath Haji. Pabna revolt occurred in Bengal from 1873-76 was a resistance movement by the peasants. Eka movement also known as unity movement was in fact a peasant movement which occurred in United Province in 1921 by Madri Pass. Birsa Munda revolt was led by Birsa Munda in areas Bihar and Jharkhand in the year 1890s. He raised the voice against the transformation of the tribal agrarian system into feudal state.

42. Which one of the following pairs of composers in different languages and their works on the Mahabharata theme is correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Pampa: Pamapa- Father of Kannada poetry wrote Adi purana, and Vikramarjunaya Vijaya. Tikkana- Telugu version of Mahabharata in 13th Century along with Nannaya (11th century)and Yerrapragada (14th century). Sarladasa

43. Which of the following dances involves solo performance?

Explanation: A. Bharatanatyam involves solo performance.

44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Varahmihira - Brihat Samhita ; Visakadatta

45. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: C. Madras is warmer than Calcutta, because it is located towards the equator. Snowfall in Himalayas is due to altitude because increase in the altitude causes decrease in temperature. Rainfall decrease from Coastal regions to interior land regions, as the moisture laden winds loses most of their moisture in the regions nearer to sea. Winter rainfall in North India is due to Western depressions.

46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Deccan traps were formed in Cretaceous Eocene age. Western Ghats were formed in Late Cenozoic age. Aravallis were formed in pre-Cambrian age. Narmada-Tapi deposits were formed in Pleistocene age.

47. The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and subtropical

Explanation: C. The January isotherm of 12

48. Match and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Coal mines are rich in Jharia, Girdih and Karanpura of Jharkhand. Gold mines are rich in Kolar and Hutti regions of Karnataka. Mica is available in Visakhapatnam, Nellore and Krishna districts of Andhra Pradesh. Manganese is available in Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts of Maharashtra.

49. The Alamatti Dam is on the river

Explanation: C. Alamatti dam is on the river Krishna.

50. Consider the map given below :

The predominant languages spoken in the areas marked A, B, C and D are respectively

Explanation: C. The area marked by A is Mathura region and there the Braj Bhasha is spoken. B is Lucknow region and Awadhi is spoken there. C and D region are near to North Bihar, there Bhojpuri and Maithili are spoken respectively.

51. The canal carrying capacity of Farakka is

Explanation: C. Farakka barrage is across river Ganges in West Bengal. Its carrying capacity is 75000 cusecs.

52. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Explanation: D. Sundari tree is found in Sundarbans of Bangladesh and India (Sunderban delta of West Bengal).

53. Which one of the following is cultivated by transplanting seedlings?

Explanation: C. Onion is cultivated by transplanting seedlings, whereas Maize, Sorghum and Soyabean are cultivated through direct seeding.

54. Consider the map given below?

The places marked A, B, C and D in the map are respectively

Explanation: C. The place marked as A is rift valley region of Narmada and Tapti rivers. B is Chattisgarh plain formed by Mahanadi river. C is Chhota Nagpur Plateau of Jharkhand. D is rain shadow region of western ghats.

55. Consider the map given below:

The places marked A, B, C and D in the map are respectively known for the cultivation of

Explanation: B. A is Gujarat region known for groundnut cultivation. B is known for sugarcane cultivation in Western Maharashtra. C is Odisha region for ragi cultivation. D is Andhra Pradesh region for Tobacco cultivation.

56. Which of the following places are known for paper manufacturing industry?
  1. Yamunanagar
  2. Guwahati
  3. Shahabad
  4. Ballarpur

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Yamunanagar, Guwahati and Ballarpur are in Haryana, Assam and Maharashtra respectively.

57. The tribal population in Andaman and Nicobar Islands belongs to the

Explanation: D. The tribes Onges and Jarwas of Andaman and Nicobar Islands belong to the Negroid race.

58. Match List I (Hazardous industries using child labour leading to the filing of a public interest petition in the Supreme Court) with List II (Located at) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: A. Glass Industry - Ferozabad ; Brassware

59. In the map shown in the given figure, rivers labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively

Explanation: A. The rivers marked in the map are: 1. Kosi, 2.Gomati, 3. Ghaghara, 4. Gandak.

60. About 50% of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of

Explanation: B. Between 20

61. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because

Explanation: A. A comet is an icy body that releases gas or dust. They contain dust, ice, Carbon dioxide, ammonia, methane, etc. Comets orbit the sun but most are believed to inhabit in an area known as the East cloud. As the comet rotates around the sun, due to the centrifugal force, the lighter mass of the comet is away and appears as a tail. It is directed away from the sun.

62. The river shown on the map is

Explanation: D. The river shown in the map is Salween, it originates from plateau of Tibet and flows through Shan plateau in Eastern region of Myanmar.

63. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?

Explanation: B. Due to the Monsoon drift, ocean current in the Indian Ocean becomes Eastward and Westward in june and November respectively. It is affected by wind circulation. In summers North Equatorial ocean currents disappear and south west monsoon current are developed. Indian counter current also disappears in North Indian ocean due to monsoon drift.

64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: A. Barley is a temperate crop. It requires cooler climate. Rice requires high temperature and high rainfall and nutrient rich soil. Millets can be grown in less water and poor soil conditions. Tea can be grown in high altitudes with warm and moist climate.

65. "From Aceh in the far northwest to Torres Strait in the east is 5000 miles, almost as far as from London to Baghdad. The Archipelago has 14,000 islands, some mere equatorial rocks, others some of the largest in the world." This description best fits

Explanation: D. The description best fits to Indonesia as the country sprawled across, with 14,000 islands in the equatorial region and North-western tip of the country in Banda Aceh.

66. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called

Explanation: D. The group of small pieces of rocks revolving round the sun, between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called asteroids.

67. If the earth's direction of rotation is reversed, what would be the 1ST when it is noon at the International Date Line?

Explanation: A. Generally, IST is 5:30 hrs, ahead of the Greenwitch Mean Time. So if its noon at the International Date Line (Greenwich line) then IST is 12:00+5:30 = 17:30 hrs. If the Earths direction of rotation is reversed, the IST will behind Greenwich Mean Time. So if its noon at the International Dateline then IST will be 12:00-5:30=6:30hrs.

68. Which one of the following stars is nearest to the earth?

Explanation: C. Sun is nearest star of Earth, with its average distance being 149.6 million km and Proxima Centauri is the second nearest star of the Earth.

69. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars?

Explanation: C. The most relevant condition for the presence of life on Mars is occurrence of ice caps and frozen water. Because the same situations, on the Earth also, are supposed to support the primitive forms of life.

70. Consider the geographical details given in the following figure:

The point marked by A in the above figure indicates a country in

Explanation: C. As the longitudes 5

71. Consider the map given below:

Of the fourshaded areas in the map, that which is characterised by hot dry summers, mild and moist winters and seasonal reversal of winds is the area labeled

Explanation: A. The hot dry summers, mild and moist winters and seasonal reversal of winds is the characteristic of Mediterranean type of climate. Found between 30

72. Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of

Explanation: B. The third dimension is shown by series of lines called isopleths which connect points of equal value. Daily weather map showing isobars i.e. places having equal pressures is an example of Isopleth map.

73. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of fuelwood in the world?

Explanation: B. Russia has the largest forest covers in the world.

74. One will NOT have to pass through the Suez Canal while going from Mumbai to

Explanation: B. Suez is the Eastern entry point of the Suez canal which is nearest to Bombay, where as port said is in the North western point of suez canal. Alexandria (Egypt), Benghazi (Libya) are away from Suez canal and in order to reach these ports, one has to travel through the Suez canal.

75. During a flight from Delhi to Tokyo the following are the landing airports:
  1. Hong Kong
  2. Hanoi
  3. Taipei
  4. Bangkok

The correct sequence of the landing at these airports during an onward journey is

Explanation: B. During flight to Delhi to Tokyo, the sequence of airports is Bangkok (Thailand), Hanoi (Vietnam),Hongkong, Taipei (Taiwan).

76. Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of per cent by mass in the earth's crust?

Explanation: B. Oxygen (47%) in the form of oxides, is present in the largest amount second abundant is silicon (27%), third abundant is Aluminium (8%) in Earth's Crust.

77. The economic and monetary union of 15 European countries is proposed to be made by 1999. But the currencies of two countries, franc have already the same value and circulate freely in both the countries. The countries are:

Explanation: C. Luxemburg and Belgium are the two countries where 'Franc' is the currency having same value and is in free circulation.

78. The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of

Explanation: B. The average rate of domestic savings (gross) for the Indian economy is currently estimated to be in the range of 20 to 25 percent.

79. The number of industries for which industrial licensing is required has now been reduced to

Explanation: B. Six industries which needs Industrial license: 1. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks; 2. Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes, Electronic, aeroplane and defence equipment; 4. Industrial explosives; 5. Hazardous chemicals and 6.Drugs and pharmaceuticals.

80. The sum of which of the following constitutes Broad Money in India?
  1. Currency with the Public
  2. Demand deposits with banks
  3. Time deposits with banks
  4. Other deposits with RBI

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: B. Broad money (M3) in India constitutes: Currency with public, Demand deposits with banks and time deposits with banks.

81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Disinvestment in shares of Public SectorEnterprises- C. Rangarajan; Industrial sickness - Omkar Goswami; Tax reforms- Raja Chelliah; Reforms in Insurance sector- R.N. Malhotra.

82. One of the important agreements reached in the 1996 Ministerial Conference of WTO relates to

Explanation: A. Commerce in Information Technology was one of the important agreements reached in 1996 Ministerial conference of WTO held in Singapore. Other important issues taken up were Labour standards, Investment and Competition in International trade and International trade of textiles.

83. Human Development Index comprises literacy rates, life expectancy at birth and

Explanation: D. Components of HDI are: Health

84. Consider the following graphs: The behaviour of a fictitious stock market index (comprising a weighted average of the market prices of a selected list of companies including some multinational corporations (MNC's) over a 15 day period is shown in the graph. The behaviour of the MNC

Which one of the following is a valid conclusion?

Explanation: D. The composite index in showing rise from the 12th day but the MNCs are consistently declining in the given period. Therefore, the revival on the 12th day is relevant to non-MNCs only.

85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: B. Iron ore- Japan; Leather goods- Russia; Tea- U.K; Cotton fabrics- U.S.A.

86. In India, inflation is measured by the

Explanation: A. In India, Inflation in measured by the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) nuber which is computed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. However in 2015, Government of India put in place a mechanism through agreement on Monetary policy Framework under which CPI(combined) is to be targeted by the RBI between the range of 2% to 6% on the annual basis. Thus in place of WPI based inflation, the CPI-C inflation has been made the anchor rate of inflation for monetary policy purpose.

87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Explanation: C. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh

88. Schemes of (i) Urban Micro Enterprises, (ii) Urban Wage Employment, and (iii) Housing and Shelter Upgradation are parts of

Explanation: B. Schemes of (i) Urban Micro-enterprises (ii) Urban Wage Employment and (iii) Housing and Shelter Upgradation are parts of 'Nehru Rojgar Yojana' which was started in the year 1989.

89. Assertion (A): The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of socialist ideology. Reason (R): The ideology of Socialism believes in universalism and globalism.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

Explanation: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Socialist society is characterized by an equal opportunity and equality of status to all, removal of exploitation amelioration of the conditions of the weaker sections. Ideology of Socialism is just opposed to individualism and capitalism. It believes in Universalism and Globalism.

90. The contribution of India's smallscale sector to the gross turnover in the manufacturing sector since 1992 has been of the order of

Explanation: A. Small scale sector has been contributing around 40% to the Gross turnover in the manufacturing sector since 1992. Its share in the total expots is 34%.

91. Which of the following come under Non-plan expenditure?
  1. Subsidies
  2. Interest payments
  3. Defence expenditure
  4. Maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation: D. Expenditure incurred on the non-developmental plans is called non-plan expenditure, which includes subsidies, interest payments, defence expenditure, maintenance expenditure for the infrastructure created in the previous plans etc.

92. National Income is the

Explanation: D. National income is the Net National Product at the factor cost. National Income can be defined as the money value of all final goods and services produced during a financial year in an economy. N.I. = NNP at factor cost = NNP at market price- Indirect taxes + subsidies

93. The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was introduced in the Budget of the Government of India for the year

Explanation: D. The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was introduced for the first time in the budget for the year 1996-97. MAT was introduced to curb the practice of some companies achieving zero tax status by paying out huge dividends, issuing bonus shares and efficient tax planning leading to their escaping the tax net. Kelkar Committee wants MAT abolished.

94. The pituitary gland by virtue of its tropic hormones controls the secretory activity of other endocrine glands. Which one of the following endocrine glands can function independent of the pituitary gland?

Explanation: D. Pituitary gland controls the secretary activity of Thyroid, Adrenals, Gonads and many other glands by secreting tropic hormones. The Parathyroid gland controlled by the Calcium levels of the blood. That

95. Oxygen transportation in a human body takes place through
  1. Blood
  2. Lungs
  3. Tissue

The correct sequence of transportation is

Explanation: C. Oxygen transportation in a human body takesplace in the sequence of Lungs

96. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to

Explanation: B. Characteristic odour of onion and Garlic is due to sulphur compounds Allyl propyl disulphide and Diallyl disulphide respectively.

97. Which one of the following is an active component of oil of clove?

Explanation: B. Eugenol is the active component of oil of clove.

98. Which one of the following organisms is likely to show the highestconcentration of DDT once it has been introduced into the ecosystem?

Explanation: C. The increased levels of DDT

99. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?

Explanation: C. Mustard gas was first chemical weapon used in First world war by Germany at the battle of Ypres (Belgium).

100. Alphakeratin is a protein present in

Explanation: C. Alpha-keratin, a secondary structural protein is present in 'wool and hair' while Beta-Keratin in 'nail and hoof'.

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